title: RCW 70.54.400

text:
(1) For purposes of this section:
(a) "Customer" means an individual who is lawfully on the premises of a retail establishment.
(b) "Eligible medical condition" means:
(i) Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or any other inflammatory bowel disease;
(ii) Irritable bowel syndrome;
(iii) Any condition requiring use of an ostomy device; or
(iv) Any permanent or temporary medical condition that requires immediate access to a restroom.
(c) "Employee restroom" means a restroom intended for employees only in a retail facility and not intended for customers.
(d) "Health care provider" means an *advanced registered nurse practitioner licensed under chapter 18.79 RCW, an osteopathic physician or surgeon licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW, a physician or surgeon licensed under chapter 18.71 RCW, or a physician assistant licensed under chapter 18.71A RCW.
(e) "Retail establishment" means a place of business open to the general public for the sale of goods or services. Retail establishment does not include any structure such as a filling station, service station, or restaurant of eight hundred square feet or less that has an employee restroom located within that structure.
(2) A retail establishment that has an employee restroom must allow a customer with an eligible medical condition to use that employee restroom during normal business hours if:
(a) The customer requesting the use of the employee restroom provides in writing either:
(i) A signed statement by the customer's health care provider on a form that has been prepared by the department of health under subsection (4) of this section; or
(ii) An identification card that is issued by a nonprofit organization whose purpose includes serving individuals who suffer from an eligible medical condition; and
(b) One of the following conditions are met:
(i) The employee restroom is reasonably safe and is not located in an area where providing access would create an obvious health or safety risk to the customer; or
(ii) Allowing the customer to access the restroom facility does not pose a security risk to the retail establishment or its employees.
(3) A retail establishment that has an employee restroom must allow a customer to use that employee restroom during normal business hours if:
(a)(i) Three or more employees of the retail establishment are working at the time the customer requests use of the employee restroom; and
(ii) The retail establishment does not normally make a restroom available to the public; and
(b)(i) The employee restroom is reasonably safe and is not located in an area where providing access would create an obvious health or safety risk to the customer; or
(ii) Allowing the customer to access the employee restroom does not pose a security risk to the retail establishment or its employees.
(4) The department of health shall develop a standard electronic form that may be signed by a health care provider as evidence of the existence of an eligible medical condition as required by subsection (2) of this section. The form shall include a brief description of a customer's rights under this section and shall be made available for a customer or his or her health care provider to access by computer. Nothing in this section requires the department to distribute printed versions of the form.
(5) Fraudulent use of a form as evidence of the existence of an eligible medical condition is a misdemeanor punishable under RCW 9A.20.010.
(6) For a first violation of this section, the city or county attorney shall issue a warning letter to the owner or operator of the retail establishment, and to any employee of a retail establishment who denies access to an employee restroom in violation of this section, informing the owner or operator of the establishment and employee of the requirements of this section. A retail establishment or an employee of a retail establishment that violates this section after receiving a warning letter is guilty of a class 2 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW.
(7) A retail establishment is not required to make any physical changes to an employee restroom under this section and may require that an employee accompany a customer or a customer with an eligible medical condition to the employee restroom.
(8) A retail establishment or an employee of a retail establishment is not civilly liable for any act or omission in allowing a customer or a customer with an eligible medical condition to use an employee restroom if the act or omission meets all of the following:
(a) It is not willful or grossly negligent;
(b) It occurs in an area of the retail establishment that is not accessible to the public; and
(c) It results in an injury to or death of the customer or the customer with an eligible medical condition or any individual other than an employee accompanying the customer or the customer with an eligible medical condition.
[ 2020 c 80 s 46; 2009 c 438 s 1.]
Notes:
*Reviser's note: The term "advanced registered nurse practitioner" was changed to "advanced practice registered nurse" by 2024 c 239 s 1, effective June 30, 2027.
Effective date—2020 c 80 ss 12-59: See note following RCW 7.68.030.
Intent—2020 c 80: See note following RCW 18.71A.010.
PDF
RCW 70.54.400
Retail restroom access—Customers with medical conditions—Penalty. (Effective June 30, 2027.)
(1) For purposes of this section:
(a) "Customer" means an individual who is lawfully on the premises of a retail establishment.
(b) "Eligible medical condition" means:
(i) Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, or any other inflammatory bowel disease;
(ii) Irritable bowel syndrome;
(iii) Any condition requiring use of an ostomy device; or
(iv) Any permanent or temporary medical condition that requires immediate access to a restroom.
(c) "Employee restroom" means a restroom intended for employees only in a retail facility and not intended for customers.
(d) "Health care provider" means an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under chapter 18.79 RCW, an osteopathic physician or surgeon licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW, a physician or surgeon licensed under chapter 18.71 RCW, or a physician assistant licensed under chapter 18.71A RCW.
(e) "Retail establishment" means a place of business open to the general public for the sale of goods or services. Retail establishment does not include any structure such as a filling station, service station, or restaurant of eight hundred square feet or less that has an employee restroom located within that structure.
(2) A retail establishment that has an employee restroom must allow a customer with an eligible medical condition to use that employee restroom during normal business hours if:
(a) The customer requesting the use of the employee restroom provides in writing either:
(i) A signed statement by the customer's health care provider on a form that has been prepared by the department of health under subsection (4) of this section; or
(ii) An identification card that is issued by a nonprofit organization whose purpose includes serving individuals who suffer from an eligible medical condition; and
(b) One of the following conditions are met:
(i) The employee restroom is reasonably safe and is not located in an area where providing access would create an obvious health or safety risk to the customer; or
(ii) Allowing the customer to access the restroom facility does not pose a security risk to the retail establishment or its employees.
(3) A retail establishment that has an employee restroom must allow a customer to use that employee restroom during normal business hours if:
(a)(i) Three or more employees of the retail establishment are working at the time the customer requests use of the employee restroom; and
(ii) The retail establishment does not normally make a restroom available to the public; and
(b)(i) The employee restroom is reasonably safe and is not located in an area where providing access would create an obvious health or safety risk to the customer; or
(ii) Allowing the customer to access the employee restroom does not pose a security risk to the retail establishment or its employees.
(4) The department of health shall develop a standard electronic form that may be signed by a health care provider as evidence of the existence of an eligible medical condition as required by subsection (2) of this section. The form shall include a brief description of a customer's rights under this section and shall be made available for a customer or his or her health care provider to access by computer. Nothing in this section requires the department to distribute printed versions of the form.
(5) Fraudulent use of a form as evidence of the existence of an eligible medical condition is a misdemeanor punishable under RCW 9A.20.010.
(6) For a first violation of this section, the city or county attorney shall issue a warning letter to the owner or operator of the retail establishment, and to any employee of a retail establishment who denies access to an employee restroom in violation of this section, informing the owner or operator of the establishment and employee of the requirements of this section. A retail establishment or an employee of a retail establishment that violates this section after receiving a warning letter is guilty of a class 2 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW.
(7) A retail establishment is not required to make any physical changes to an employee restroom under this section and may require that an employee accompany a customer or a customer with an eligible medical condition to the employee restroom.
(8) A retail establishment or an employee of a retail establishment is not civilly liable for any act or omission in allowing a customer or a customer with an eligible medical condition to use an employee restroom if the act or omission meets all of the following:
(a) It is not willful or grossly negligent;
(b) It occurs in an area of the retail establishment that is not accessible to the public; and
(c) It results in an injury to or death of the customer or the customer with an eligible medical condition or any individual other than an employee accompanying the customer or the customer with an eligible medical condition.
[ 2025 c 58 s 5137; 2020 c 80 s 46; 2009 c 438 s 1.]
Notes:
Effective date—2025 c 58 ss 5058-5170: See note following RCW 7.68.030.
Explanatory note—2025 c 58: See note following RCW 1.16.050.
Effective date—2020 c 80 ss 12-59: See note following RCW 7.68.030.
Intent—2020 c 80: See note following RCW 18.71A.010.

catchline: Retail restroom access—Customers with medical conditions—Penalty. (Effective until June 30, 2027.)


doc_type: statute

jurisdiction: wa

title: RCW 70.54.410

text:
(1) To reduce unintended pregnancies, state agencies may apply for sexual health education funding for programs that are medically and scientifically accurate, including, but not limited to, programs on abstinence, the prevention of sexually transmitted diseases, and the prevention of unintended pregnancies. The state shall ensure that such programs:
(a) Are evidence-based;
(b) Use state funds cost-effectively;
(c) Maximize the use of federal matching funds; and
(d) Are consistent with RCW 28A.300.475, the state's healthy youth act, as existing on July 26, 2009.
(2) As used in this section:
(a) "Medically and scientifically accurate" has the same meaning as in RCW 28A.300.475, as existing on July 26, 2009; and
(b) "Evidence-based" means a program that uses practices proven to the greatest extent possible through research in compliance with scientific methods to be effective and beneficial for the target population.
[ 2009 c 303 s 1.]

license: public-domain-government-work

rule_set: Revised Code of Washington

catchline: Unintended pregnancies—Sexual health education funding.

code: rcw

unit: section

court: Washington State Legislature


title: RCW 70.54.420

text:
(1) The administrator shall within available resources appoint a lead organization by January 1, 2011, to support at least one integrated health care delivery system and one network of nonintegrated community health care providers in establishing two distinct accountable care organization pilot projects. The intent is that at least two accountable care organization pilot projects be in the process of implementation no later than January 1, 2012. In order to obtain expert guidance and consultation in design and implementation of the pilots, the lead organization shall contract with a recognized national learning collaborative with a reputable research organization having expertise in the development and implementation of accountable care organizations and payment systems.
(2) The lead organization designated by the administrator under this section shall:
(a) Be representative of health care providers and payors across the state;
(b) Have expertise and knowledge in medical payment and practice reform;
(c) Be able to support the costs of its work without recourse to state funding. The administrator and the lead organization are authorized and encouraged to seek federal funds, as well as solicit, receive, contract for, collect, and hold grants, donations, and gifts to support the implementation of this section and may scale back implementation to fall within resulting resource parameters;
(d) In collaboration with the health care authority, identify and convene work groups, as needed, to accomplish the goals of chapter 220, Laws of 2010; and
(e) Submit regular reports to the administrator on the progress of implementing the requirements of chapter 220, Laws of 2010.
(3) As used in this section, an "accountable care organization" is an entity that enables networks consisting of health care providers or a health care delivery system to become accountable for the overall costs and quality of care for the population they jointly serve and to share in the savings created by improving quality and slowing spending growth while relying on the following principles:
(a) Local accountability:
(i) Accountable care organizations must be composed of local delivery systems; and
(ii) Accountable care organizations spending benchmarks must make the local system accountable for cost, quality, and capacity;
(b) Appropriate payment and delivery models:
(i) Accountable care organizations with expenditures below benchmarks are recognized and rewarded with appropriate financial incentives;
(ii) Payment models have financial incentives that allow stakeholders to make investments that improve care and slow cost growth such as health information technology; and
(iii) Patient-centered medical homes are an integral component to an accountable care organization with a focus on improving patient outcomes, optimizing the use of health care information technology, patient registries, and chronic disease management, thereby improving the primary care team, and achieving cost savings through lowering health care utilization;
(c) Performance measurement:
(i) Measurement is essential to ensure that appropriate care is being delivered and that cost savings are not the result of limiting necessary care; and
(ii) Accountable care organizations must report patient experience data in addition to clinical process and outcome measures.
(4) The lead organization, subject to available resources, shall research other opportunities to establish accountable care organization pilot projects, which may become available through participation in a demonstration project in medicaid, payment reform in medicare, national health care reform, or other federal changes that support the development of accountable care organizations.
(5) The lead organization, subject to available resources, shall coordinate the accountable care organization selection process with the primary care medical home reimbursement pilot projects established in *RCW 70.54.380 and the ongoing joint project of the department of health and the Washington academy of family physicians patient-centered medical home collaborative being put into practice under section 2, chapter 295, Laws of 2008, as well as other private and public efforts to promote adoption of medical homes within the state.
(6) The lead organization shall make a report to the health care committees of the legislature, by January 1, 2013, on the progress of the accountable care organization pilot projects, recommendations about further expansion, and needed changes to the statute to more broadly implement and oversee accountable care organizations in the state.
(7) As used in this section, "administrator," "health care provider," "lead organization," and "payor" have the same meaning as provided in RCW 41.05.036.
[ 2010 c 220 s 2.]
Notes:
*Reviser's note: RCW 70.54.380 expired July 1, 2013, pursuant to 2009 c 305 s 4.
Findings—Intent—2010 c 220: "(1)(a) The legislature finds that a necessary component of bending the health care cost curve is innovative payment and practice reforms that capitalize on current incentives and create new incentives in the delivery system to further the goals of increased quality, accessibility, and affordability.
(b) The legislature further finds that accountable care organizations have received significant attention in the recent health care reform debate and have been found by the congressional budget office to be one of the few comprehensive reform models that can be relied on to reduce costs.
(c) The legislature further finds that accountable care organizations present an intriguing path forward on reform that builds on current provider referral patterns and offers shared savings payments to providers willing to be held accountable for quality and costs.
(d) The legislature further finds that the accountable care organization framework offers a basic method of decoupling volume and intensity from revenue and profit and is thus a crucial step toward achieving a truly sustainable health care delivery system.
(2) The legislature declares that collaboration among public payors, private health carriers, third-party purchasers, health care delivery systems, and providers to identify appropriate reimbursement methods to align incentives in support of accountable care organizations is in the best interest of the public. The legislature therefore intends to exempt from state antitrust laws, and to provide immunity from federal antitrust laws through the state action doctrine, for activities undertaken pursuant to pilots designed and implemented under RCW 70.54.420 that might otherwise be constrained by such laws. The legislature does not intend and does not authorize any person or entity to engage in activities or to conspire to engage in activities that would constitute per se violations of state and federal antitrust laws including, but not limited to, agreements among competing health care providers or health carriers as to the price or specific level of reimbursement for health care services.
(3) The legislature further finds that public-private partnerships and joint projects, such as the Washington patient-centered medical home collaborative administered and funded jointly between the department of health and the Washington academy of family physicians, are research-supported, evidence-based primary care delivery projects that should be encouraged to the fullest extent possible because they improve health outcomes for patients and increase primary care clinical effectiveness, thereby reducing the overall costs in our health care system." [ 2010 c 220 s 1.]

catchline: Accountable care organization pilot projects—Report to the legislature.


title: RCW 70.54.430

text:
(1) When requested by first responders during an emergency, employees of companies providing personal emergency response services must provide to first responders the name, address, and any other information necessary for first responders to contact subscribers within the jurisdiction of the emergency.
(2) Companies providing personal emergency response services may adopt policies to respond to requests from first responders to release subscriber contact information during an emergency. Policies may include procedures to:
(a) Verify that the requester is a first responder;
(b) Verify that the request is made pursuant to an emergency;
(c) Fulfill the request by providing the subscriber contact information; and
(d) Deny the request if no emergency exists or if the requester is not a first responder.
(3) Information received by a first responder under subsection (1) of this section is confidential and exempt from disclosure under chapter 42.56 RCW, and may be used only in responding to the emergency that prompted the request for information. Any first responder receiving the information must destroy it at the end of the emergency.
(4) It is not a violation of this section if a personal emergency response services company or an employee makes a good faith effort to comply with this section. In addition, the company or employee is immune from civil liability for a good faith effort to comply with this section. Should a company or employee prevail upon the defense provided in this section, the company or employee is entitled to recover expenses and reasonable attorneys' fees incurred in establishing the defense.
(5) First responders and their employing jurisdictions are not liable for failing to request the information in subsection (1) of this section. In addition, chapter 30, Laws of 2015 does not create a private right of action nor does it create any civil liability on the part of the state or any of its subdivisions, including first responders.
(6) For the purposes of this section:
(a) "Emergency" means an occurrence that renders the personal emergency response services system inoperable for a period of twenty-four or more continuous hours, and that requires the attention of first responders acting within the scope of their official duties.
(b) "First responder" means firefighters, law enforcement officers, coroners and medical examiners, and emergency medical personnel, as licensed or certificated by this state.
(c) "Personal emergency response services" means a service provided for profit that allows persons in need of emergency assistance to contact a call center by activating a wearable device, such as a pendant or bracelet.
(7) This section does not require a personal emergency response services company to:
(a) Provide first responders with subscriber contact information in nonemergency situations; or
(b) Provide subscriber contact information to entities other than first responders.
[ 2021 c 122 s 5; 2015 c 30 s 1.]
Notes:
Finding—Intent—2021 c 122: See note following RCW 2.32.050.

catchline: First responders—Emergency response service—Contact information.


title: RCW 70.54.440

text:
(1) An authorized health care provider may prescribe epinephrine autoinjectors in the name of an authorized entity for use in accordance with this section, and pharmacists, *advanced registered nurse practitioners, and physicians may dispense epinephrine autoinjectors pursuant to a prescription issued in the name of an authorized entity.
(2) An authorized entity may acquire and stock a supply of epinephrine autoinjectors pursuant to a prescription issued in accordance with this section. The epinephrine autoinjectors must be stored in a location readily accessible in an emergency and in accordance with the epinephrine autoinjector's instructions for use and any additional requirements that may be established by the department of health. An authorized entity shall designate employees or agents who have completed the training required by subsection (4) of this section to be responsible for the storage, maintenance, and general oversight of epinephrine autoinjectors acquired by the authorized entity.
(3) An employee or agent of an authorized entity, or other individual, who has completed the training required by subsection (4) of this section may, on the premises of or in connection with the authorized entity, use epinephrine autoinjectors prescribed pursuant to subsection (1) of this section to:
(a) Provide an epinephrine autoinjector to any individual who the employee, agent, or other individual believes in good faith is experiencing anaphylaxis for immediate self-administration, regardless of whether the individual has a prescription for an epinephrine autoinjector or has previously been diagnosed with an allergy.
(b) Administer an epinephrine autoinjector to any individual who the employee, agent, or other individual believes in good faith is experiencing anaphylaxis, regardless of whether the individual has a prescription for an epinephrine autoinjector or has previously been diagnosed with an allergy.
(4)(a) An employee, agent, or other individual described in subsection (3) of this section must complete an anaphylaxis training program prior to providing or administering an epinephrine autoinjector made available by an authorized entity. The training must be conducted by a nationally recognized organization experienced in training laypersons in emergency health treatment or an entity or individual approved by the department of health. Training may be conducted online or in person and, at a minimum, must cover:
(i) Techniques on how to recognize symptoms of severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis;
(ii) Standards and procedures for the storage and administration of an epinephrine autoinjector; and
(iii) Emergency follow-up procedures.
(b) The entity that conducts the training shall issue a certificate, on a form developed or approved by the department of health, to each person who successfully completes the anaphylaxis training program.
(5) An authorized entity that possesses and makes available epinephrine autoinjectors and its employees, agents, and other trained individuals; an authorized health care provider that prescribes epinephrine autoinjectors to an authorized entity; and an individual or entity that conducts the training described in subsection (4) of this section is not liable for any injuries or related damages that result from the administration or self-administration of an epinephrine autoinjector, the failure to administer an epinephrine autoinjector, or any other act or omission taken pursuant to this section: PROVIDED, However, this immunity does not apply to acts or omissions constituting gross negligence or willful or wanton misconduct. The administration of an epinephrine autoinjector in accordance with this section is not the practice of medicine. This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any other immunity or defense that may be available under state law, including that provided under RCW 4.24.300. An entity located in this state is not liable for any injuries or related damages that result from the provision or administration of an epinephrine autoinjector by its employees or agents outside of this state if the entity or its employee or agent (a) would not have been liable for the injuries or related damages had the provision or administration occurred within this state, or (b) are [is] not liable for the injuries or related damages under the law of the state in which the provision or administration occurred.
(6) An authorized entity that possesses and makes available epinephrine autoinjectors shall submit to the department of health, on a form developed by the department of health, a report of each incident on the authorized entity's premises that involves the administration of the authorized entity's epinephrine autoinjector. The department of health shall annually publish a report that summarizes and analyzes all reports submitted to it under this subsection.
(7) As used in this section:
(a) "Administer" means the direct application of an epinephrine autoinjector to the body of an individual.
(b) "Authorized entity" means any entity or organization at or in connection with which allergens capable of causing anaphylaxis may be present , including, but not limited to, restaurants, recreation camps, youth sports leagues, amusement parks, colleges, universities, and sports arenas.
(c) "Authorized health care provider" means an individual allowed by law to prescribe and administer prescription drugs in the course of professional practice.
(d) "Epinephrine autoinjector" means a single-use device used for the automatic injection of a premeasured dose of epinephrine into the human body.
(e) "Provide" means the supply of one or more epinephrine autoinjectors to an individual.
(f) "Self-administration" means a person's discretionary use of an epinephrine autoinjector.
[ 2016 c 10 s 1.]
Notes:
*Reviser's note: The term "advanced registered nurse practitioner" was changed to "advanced practice registered nurse" by 2024 c 239 s 1, effective June 30, 2027.

catchline: Epinephrine autoinjectors—Prescribing to certain entities—Training—Liability—Incident reporting.


title: RCW 70.54.450

text:
(1) For the purposes of this section, "maternal mortality" or "maternal death" means a death of a woman while pregnant or within one year of the end of a pregnancy, from any cause.
(2) A maternal mortality review panel is established to conduct comprehensive, multidisciplinary reviews of maternal deaths in Washington to identify factors associated with the deaths and make recommendations for system changes to improve health care services for women in this state. The members of the panel must be appointed by the secretary of the department of health, must include at least one tribal representative, must serve without compensation, and may include at the discretion of the department:
(a) Women's medical, nursing, and service providers;
(b) Perinatal medical, nursing, and service providers;
(c) Obstetric medical, nursing, and service providers;
(d) Newborn or pediatric medical, nursing, and service providers;
(e) Birthing hospital or licensed birth center representative;
(f) Coroners, medical examiners, or pathologists;
(g) Behavioral health and service providers;
(h) State agency representatives;
(i) Individuals or organizations that represent the populations most affected by pregnancy-related deaths or pregnancy-associated deaths and lack of access to maternal health care services;
(j) A representative from the department of health who works in the field of maternal and child health; and
(k) A department of health epidemiologist with experience analyzing perinatal data.
(3) The maternal mortality review panel must conduct comprehensive, multidisciplinary reviews of maternal mortality in Washington. The panel may not call witnesses or take testimony from any individual involved in the investigation of a maternal death or enforce any public health standard or criminal law or otherwise participate in any legal proceeding relating to a maternal death.
(4)(a) Information, documents, proceedings, records, and opinions created, collected, or maintained by the maternity mortality review panel or the department of health in support of the maternal mortality review panel are confidential and are not subject to public inspection or copying under chapter 42.56 RCW and are not subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in any civil or criminal action.
(b) Any person who was in attendance at a meeting of the maternal mortality review panel or who participated in the creation, collection, or maintenance of the panel's information, documents, proceedings, records, or opinions may not be permitted or required to testify in any civil or criminal action as to the content of such proceedings, or the panel's information, documents, records, or opinions. This subsection does not prevent a member of the panel from testifying in a civil or criminal action concerning facts which form the basis for the panel's proceedings of which the panel member had personal knowledge acquired independently of the panel or which is public information.
(c) Any person who, in substantial good faith, participates as a member of the maternal mortality review panel or provides information to further the purposes of the maternal mortality review panel may not be subject to an action for civil damages or other relief as a result of the activity or its consequences.
(d) All meetings, proceedings, and deliberations of the maternal mortality review panel may, at the discretion of the maternal mortality review panel, be confidential and may be conducted in executive session.
(e) The maternal mortality review panel and the department of health may retain identifiable information regarding facilities where maternal deaths occur, or facilities from which a patient whose record is or will be examined by the maternal mortality review panel was transferred, and geographic information on each case for the purposes of determining trends, performing analysis over time, and for quality improvement efforts. All individually identifiable information must be removed before any case review by the panel.
(5) The department of health shall review department available data to identify maternal deaths. To aid in determining whether a maternal death was related to or aggravated by the pregnancy, whether it was preventable, and to coordinate quality improvement efforts, the department of health has the authority to:
(a) Request and receive data for specific maternal deaths including, but not limited to, all medical records, autopsy reports, medical examiner reports, coroner reports, and social service records; and
(b) Request and receive data as described in (a) of this subsection from health care providers, health care facilities, clinics, laboratories, medical examiners, coroners, professions and facilities licensed by the department of health, local health jurisdictions, the health care authority and its licensees and providers, the department of social and health services and its licensees and providers, and the department of children, youth, and families and its licensees and providers.
(6) Upon request by the department of health, health care providers, health care facilities, clinics, laboratories, medical examiners, coroners, professions and facilities licensed by the department of health, local health jurisdictions, the health care authority and its licensees and providers, the department of social and health services and its licensees and providers, and the department of children, youth, and families and its licensees and providers must provide all medical records, autopsy reports, medical examiner reports, coroner reports, social services records, information and records related to sexually transmitted diseases, and other data requested for specific maternal deaths as provided for in subsection (5) of this section to the department.
(7) By October 1, 2019, and every three years thereafter, the maternal mortality review panel must submit a report to the secretary of the department of health and the health care committees of the senate and house of representatives. The report must protect the confidentiality of all decedents and other participants involved in any incident. The report must be distributed to relevant stakeholder groups for performance improvement. Interim results may be shared with the Washington state hospital association coordinated quality improvement program. The report must include the following:
(a) A description of the maternal deaths reviewed by the panel, including statistics and causes of maternal deaths presented in the aggregate, but the report must not disclose any identifying information of patients, decedents, providers, and organizations involved; and
(b) Evidence-based system changes and possible legislation to improve maternal outcomes and reduce preventable maternal deaths in Washington.
(8) Upon the approval of the department of health and with a signed written data-sharing agreement, the department of health may release either data or findings with indirect identifiers, or both, to the centers for disease control and prevention, regional maternal mortality review efforts, local health jurisdictions of Washington state, or tribes at the discretion of the department.
(a) A written data-sharing agreement under this section must, at a minimum:
(i) Include a description of the proposed purpose of the request, the scientific justification for the proposal, the type of data needed, and the purpose for which the data will be used;
(ii) Include the methods to be used to protect the confidentiality and security of the data;
(iii) Prohibit redisclosure of any identifiers without express written permission from the department of health;
(iv) Prohibit the recipient of the data from attempting to determine the identity of persons or parties whose information is included in the data set or use the data in any manner that identifies individuals or their family members, or health care providers and facilities;
(v) State that ownership of data provided under this section remains with the department of health, and is not transferred to those authorized to receive and use the data under the agreement; and
(vi) Require the recipient of the data to include appropriate citations when the data is used in research reports or publications of research findings.
(b) The department of health may deny a request to share either data or findings, or both, that does not meet the requirements.
(c) For the purposes of this subsection:
(i) "Direct identifier" means a single data element that identifies an individual person.
(ii) "Indirect identifier" means a single data element that on its own might not identify an individual person, but when combined with other indirect identifiers is likely to identify an individual person.
(9) For the purposes of the maternal mortality review, hospitals and licensed birth centers must make a reasonable and good faith effort to report all deaths that occur during pregnancy or within forty-two days of the end of pregnancy to the local coroner or medical examiner:
(a) These deaths must be reported within thirty-six hours after death.
(b) Local coroners or medical examiners to whom the death was reported must conduct a death investigation, with autopsy strongly recommended.
(c) Autopsies must follow the guidelines for performance of an autopsy published by the department of health.
(d) Reimbursement of these autopsies must be at one hundred percent to the counties for autopsy services.
[ 2019 c 317 s 1; 2016 c 238 s 1.]
Notes:

catchline: Maternal mortality review panel—Duties—Confidentiality, testimonial privilege, and liability—Identification of maternal deaths—Reports—Data-sharing agreements.


title: RCW 70.54.470

text:
(1) No health care provider or health care facility may sell or assign medical debt to any person licensed under chapter 19.16 RCW until at least one hundred twenty days after the initial billing statement for that medical debt has been transmitted to the patient or other responsible party.
(2) For the purposes of this section:
(a) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 70.02.010.
(b) "Health care provider" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 70.02.010.
(c) "Medical debt" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 19.16.100.
[ 2019 c 227 s 7.]

catchline: Medical debt—Limits on sale or assignment.


title: RCW 70.54.475

text:
(1) A medical debt is void and unenforceable if a person, health care provider, health care facility, or licensed collection agency violates this section by furnishing information regarding the medical debt to a consumer credit reporting agency.
(2) The legislature finds that the practices covered by this section are matters vitally affecting the public interest for the purpose of applying the consumer protection act, chapter 19.86 RCW. A violation of this section is not reasonable in relation to the development and preservation of business and is an unfair or deceptive act in trade or commerce and an unfair method of competition for the purpose of applying the consumer protection act, chapter 19.86 RCW.
[ 2025 c 145 s 2.]

catchline: Medical debt—Consumer credit reporting agencies—Application of consumer protection act.


title: RCW 70.54.480

text:
(1) The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(a) "Drayage truck operator" means the driver of any in-use on-road vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating greater than 33,000 pounds operating on or transgressing through port or intermodal rail yard property for the purpose of loading, unloading, or transporting cargo, including containerized, bulk, or break-bulk goods.
(b)(i) "Terminal operator" means the business entity operating a marine terminal for loading and unloading cargo to and from marine vessels.
(ii) "Terminal operator" includes the port if the port is directly operating the marine terminal in loading and unloading cargo to and from marine vessels.
(2) A terminal operator must provide a sufficient number of restrooms for use by drayage truck operators in areas of the terminal that drayage truck operators typically have access to, such as inside the gate and truck queuing lots. Restrooms may include fixed bathrooms with flush toilets or portable chemical toilets. At least one restroom provided by the terminal operator must be a private space suitable for and dedicated to expressing breast milk.
(3) A terminal operator is deemed in compliance with this section if the terminal operator:
(a) Allows drayage truck operators access to existing restrooms while the drayage truck operators are on port property in areas of the terminal that drayage truck operators typically have access to and when access does not pose an obvious safety risk to the drayage truck operators and other workers in the area and does not violate federal terminal security requirements;
(b) When necessary, provides additional restrooms at locations where there is the most need. To determine need, the terminal operator must assess the use and accessibility of existing restrooms and conduct a survey of drayage truck operators; and
(c) Has a policy that allows drayage truck operators to leave their vehicles at reasonable times and locations for purposes of accessing restrooms.
(4) Restrooms for drayage truck operators must be located in areas where access would not pose an obvious health or safety risk to the drayage truck operators or other workers in the area.
(5)(a) The departments of health and labor and industries have jurisdiction to enforce this section.
(b) The department of health may issue a warning letter to the port terminal operator for a first violation of this section, informing the port terminal operator of the requirements of this section. A port terminal operator that violates this section after receiving a warning letter is guilty of a class 2 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW.
(c) Failure of a terminal operator to comply with this section is a violation of chapter 49.17 RCW.
(d) The departments may not take duplicate enforcement actions against an individual or business for violations arising from the same conduct.
[ 2022 c 204 s 1.]

catchline: Drayage truck operators—Access to restroom facilities.


title: RCW 70.54.490

text:
The department of health shall post and periodically revise on its website information about substance use trends, overdose symptoms and response, and the secure storage of prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and firearms and ammunition. The information must be provided or otherwise made accessible to school districts, charter public schools, state-tribal compact schools, and educational service districts, and must be formatted for the needs of public school students and families as provided in RCW 28A.320.292 and 28A.310.520. The information also must be in the form of a template that can be revised as necessary and that:
(1) Includes website addresses and telephone numbers of one or more public health agencies with applicable information;
(2) May include website addresses and telephone numbers of one or more private organizations with applicable information;
(3) Can be replicated for other health and safety topics that are germane to public schools;
(4) Can be easily and readily shared with schools and districts in accordance with the requirements of RCW 28A.320.292(2); and
(5) Includes format and content options that schools and school districts may use to reflect regional, demographic, and cultural differences.
[ 2023 c 173 s 4.]
Notes:
Findings—2023 c 173: "(1) The legislature recognizes that access to information regarding drug overdoses and the secure storage of medication and firearms can help decrease the risks of related injuries and deaths by aiding parents and students in their efforts to keep children and each other safe. The legislature also recognizes that significant increases in ongoing student behavioral health crises, including increased suicide ideation and completion, requires policymakers to promptly and thoughtfully consider reasonable ways of limiting children's access to lethal means.
(2) The legislature finds data involving the unintentional ingestion of medications by children highly concerning. Nationally, in 2017 and 2018 there was an average of 47,500 emergency room visits annually for children under the age of six who had accidentally, and without supervision, ingested medicine. This number equates to approximately 130 emergency room visits per day or more than five per hour. During this same two-year period, 23 children under age six were hospitalized each day for an accidental unsupervised ingestion of medicine. Furthermore, the data for 2017 indicates that 84 percent of children receiving emergency treatment for an accidental unsupervised ingestion of medicine were between one and three years old.
(3) Although the unintentional ingestion of medications can be fatal for children, regrettably, that threat is only one of many drug-related concerns plaguing families and children. The decades-long opioid crisis, for example, has had profound impacts in our state. According to data from the department of health, in 2018 opioids were involved in two-thirds of the drug overdoses in Washington state and in the nation. Also, the 2018 Washington healthy youth survey indicated that about 2,500 12th grade students had tried heroin at least once, and about 3,500 12th grade students had used pain killers to get high in any given month.
(4) The legislature also finds that the need for safe secure storage information is evidenced by sobering data. For example, researchers at the University of Washington found in 2018 that 63 percent of Washington firearm owners did not practice secure firearm storage; and nationally, about 50,000 children each year are brought to emergency rooms after unintentionally ingesting a medicine when a caregiver was not watching.
(5) Researchers estimate that one in three American families with children have at least one firearm in the home. About 75 percent of children aged five through 14 with firearm-owning parents know where the firearms are stored, and more than 20 percent of the children have handled a firearm in the home without their parents' knowledge.
(6) The legislature recognizes that the impacts of firearms on the health and safety of children is profound. For example, an analysis of school related gun violence found that more than 85 percent of school shooters obtained the firearm at their home or from a friend or relative. Researchers have also found that more than 75 percent of firearms used in youth suicide attempts and unintentional injuries were stored in the residence of the victim, a relative, or a friend. Additionally, the two age groups most likely to be both shooters and victims were youth aged 14 to 17, and preschoolers aged five and younger. Furthermore, firearms are the leading cause of death in suicides and homicides by youth and young adults in Washington state.
(7) The legislature finds that the challenges of the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic have exacerbated troubling trends with children and firearms. For example, the number of unintentional shooting deaths by children in the United States from the beginning of the COVID-19 pandemic, March of 2020 through December of 2020, was 31 percent higher than the same period one year earlier. Nationally during this same period, there were 314 incidents of unintentional shootings by children resulting in 128 gun deaths and 199 nonfatal injuries.
(8) The legislature, therefore, in recognition of the critical and ongoing need for lifesaving information for items that can accidentally or intentionally inflict great harm on children and families, intends to require that school districts and other public education entities use their websites and other communication resources to provide accurate and easily accessed information about substance use trends, overdose symptoms and response, and the secure storage of prescription drugs, over-the-counter medications, and firearms and ammunition." [ 2023 c 173 s 1.]

catchline: Posting of health and safety information—Format and accessibility.


title: RCW 70.54.500

text:
(1) The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(a) "Consignee" means a person or business who takes delivery of property, cargo, or materials transported in interstate or intrastate commerce from a motor carrier.
(b) "Motor carrier" includes "common carrier," "contract carrier," and "private carrier" as defined in RCW 81.80.010.
(c) "Restroom" means a bathroom facility as required by rules authorized under chapter 49.17 RCW, located on the premises of, and operated by, a shipper or consignee and that is intended for use by customers or employees of the shipper or consignee.
(d) "Shipper" means a person or business who tenders property, cargo, or materials to a motor carrier for transportation in interstate or intrastate commerce.
(2) A shipper or consignee required to provide a restroom by rules authorized under chapter 49.17 RCW must allow a motor carrier delivering goods to or picking goods up from a shipper or consignee to use that restroom during normal business hours if:
(a) The restroom is located in an area where providing access would not create an obvious health or safety risk to the motor carrier; and
(b) Allowing the motor carrier to access the restroom does not pose an obvious security, health, or safety risk to the shipper, consignee, or its employees.
(3) A shipper or consignee is not required to make any physical changes to a restroom under this section and may require that an employee accompany a motor carrier to the restroom.
(4) A shipper or consignee or an employee of a shipper or consignee is not civilly liable for any act or omission in allowing a motor carrier to use a restroom if the act or omission:
(a) Is not willful or grossly negligent;
(b) Occurs in an area of the shipper or consignee facility that is not accessible to the public; and
(c) Results in an injury to or death of the motor carrier or any individual other than an employee accompanying the motor carrier.
(5)(a) The department of health has jurisdiction to enforce this section.
(b) The department of health may issue a warning letter to a shipper or consignee for a first violation of this section, informing the shipper or consignee of the requirements of this section. A shipper or consignee that violates this section after receiving a warning letter is guilty of a class 2 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW.
[ 2023 c 251 s 1.]

catchline: Motor carriers—Access to restroom facilities.


title: RCW 70.54.505

text:
(1) A public building in which a public restroom is required must provide a baby diaper changing station in at least one restroom that is accessible to women and one restroom that is accessible to men, or in one gender-neutral restroom. If multiple restrooms accessible to women, restrooms accessible to men, or gender-neutral restrooms exist, each restroom that does not include a baby diaper changing station must contain clear and conspicuous signage indicating where a restroom with a baby diaper changing station is located.
(2)(a) Except as provided in (b) and (c) of this subsection, the requirements in subsection (1) of this section apply to any public building constructed after July 27, 2025, and to any existing public building upon the issuance of a permit for a remodel or renovation of a public restroom within the building with an estimated cost of $15,000 or more.
(b) The requirements in subsection (1) of this section do not apply to an existing public building at the time of the issuance of a permit for the remodel or renovation of a public restroom if the local government issuing the permit or a building inspector determine that the installation of a baby diaper changing station in the building is not feasible or would result in a failure to comply with applicable building standards governing the right of access for persons with disabilities.
(c) The requirements in subsection (1) of this section do not apply to a restroom located in a health care facility if the restroom is intended for the use of one patient or resident at a time and is not available for public use.
(3) For a first violation of this section, the city or county attorney shall issue a warning letter to the owner or operator of the public building. An owner or operator of a public building that violates this section after receiving a warning letter is guilty of a class 2 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW, except when the baby diaper changing station has been removed in compliance with subsection (4) of this section, in which case no penalty may be issued.
(4) A building owner or operator that has installed a baby diaper changing station in compliance with this section that is not used consistent with the standards established by the manufacturer may remove the baby diaper changing station.
(5) For the purposes of this section:
(a) "Baby diaper changing station" means a table or other device suitable for changing the diaper of a child weighing less than 50 pounds that is in compliance with the international building code standards as amended and adopted by the state building code council.
(b) "Gender-neutral restroom" means a restroom that is not restricted by gender including, but not limited to, restrooms available for use by families.
(c) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in RCW 70.02.010.
(d) "Public building" is any building required to have a public restroom by the state building code or local regulations. "Public building" does not include an industrial building or commercial building that does not permit anyone who is under 18 years of age to enter the premises.
[ 2025 c 274 s 1.]

catchline: Baby diaper changing stations—Public buildings—Penalties.


title: RCW 70.54.510

text:
(1) It is the policy of the state that public health responses to address communicable diseases be guided by the best available science on the safety and efficacy of evidence-based measures to control the spread of such diseases, including immunizations and vaccines.
(2) Consistent with the policy in subsection (1) of this section, the state and local health officials must, within available resources, implement and promote evidence-based, appropriate measures to control the spread of communicable diseases, including immunizations and vaccines. The state and its political subdivisions may not enact statutes, ordinances, rules, or policies that prohibit the implementation and promotion of such measures. Any such statute, ordinance, rule, or policy in place on April 21, 2025, is hereby declared null and void.
[ 2025 c 105 s 2.]
Notes:
Findings—Intent—2025 c 105: "(1) The legislature finds that:
(a) Communicable diseases remain a real threat to our communities and many are increasing in prevalence and severity. There are over 100 notifiable conditions that are required to be reported to local and state public health, the vast majority of which are communicable diseases.
(b) The H1N1 virus, or avian flu, remains a nationwide threat with 14 Washingtonians contracting this illness due to exposure to infected poultry in 2024. Tuberculosis remains prevalent despite the availability of effective treatment, with several local health jurisdictions experiencing their first active cases of tuberculosis in over a decade. Sexually transmitted infection rates are also increasing, particularly syphilis and gonorrhea, both of which can have serious health impacts if left untreated. For example, untreated syphilis during pregnancy can result in congenital syphilis that increases rates of stillbirth, disability, and death in infants.
(c) To address these challenges, the ability for state and local health officials to educate the public about evidence-based measures that use the best available science is critical to control the spread of communicable diseases.
(2) Therefore, the legislature intends to ensure that the public receives timely, well-researched, evidence-based, and science-driven information to make informed choices so that they can take personal control of their health and the health of their families.
(3) The legislature does not intend by this enactment to modify, limit, or expand any existing requirement or establish any new requirement for any individual to receive any vaccine or take any other similar measure to control the spread of communicable disease, nor does the legislature intend by this enactment to modify, limit, or expand any existing authority or grant any new authority to establish any such requirement." [ 2025 c 105 s 1.]
Effective date—2025 c 105: "This act is necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety, or support of the state government and its existing public institutions, and takes effect immediately [April 21, 2025]." [ 2025 c 105 s 3.]

catchline: Communicable disease control policy.


title: RCW 70.56.010

text:
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) "Adverse health event" or "adverse event" means the list of serious reportable events adopted by the national quality forum in 2002, in its consensus report on serious reportable events in health care. The department shall update the list, through adoption of rules, as subsequent changes are made by the national quality forum. The term does not include an incident.
(2) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility licensed under chapter 70.230 RCW.
(3) "Childbirth center" means a facility licensed under chapter 18.46 RCW.
(4) "Correctional medical facility" means a part or unit of a correctional facility operated by the department of corrections under chapter 72.10 RCW that provides medical services for lengths of stay in excess of twenty-four hours to offenders.
(5) "Department" means the department of health.
(6) "Health care worker" means an employee, independent contractor, licensee, or other individual who is directly involved in the delivery of health services in a medical facility.
(7) "Hospital" means a facility licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW.
(8) "Incident" means an event, occurrence, or situation involving the clinical care of a patient in a medical facility that:
(a) Results in unanticipated injury to a patient that is not related to the natural course of the patient's illness or underlying condition and does not constitute an adverse event; or
(b) Could have injured the patient but did not either cause an unanticipated injury or require the delivery of additional health care services to the patient.
"Incident" does not include an adverse event.
(9) "Independent entity" means that entity that the department of health contracts with under RCW 70.56.040 to receive notifications and reports of adverse events and incidents, and carry out the activities specified in RCW 70.56.040.
(10) "Medical facility" means a childbirth center, hospital, *psychiatric hospital, or correctional medical facility. An ambulatory surgical facility shall be considered a medical facility for purposes of this chapter upon the effective date of any requirement for state registration or licensure of ambulatory surgical facilities.
(11) "*Psychiatric hospital" means a hospital facility licensed as a *psychiatric hospital under chapter 71.12 RCW.
[ 2007 c 273 s 20; 2006 c 8 s 105.]
Notes:
*Reviser's note: The term "psychiatric hospital" was changed to "behavioral health hospital" by 2024 c 121 s 19.
Effective date—Implementation—2007 c 273: See RCW 70.230.900 and 70.230.901.

catchline: Definitions.


title: RCW 70.56.020

text:
(1) The legislature intends to establish an adverse health events and incident notification and reporting system that is designed to facilitate quality improvement in the health care system, improve patient safety, assist the public in making informed health care choices, and decrease medical errors in a nonpunitive manner. The notification and reporting system shall not be designed to punish errors by health care practitioners or health care facility employees.
(2) When a medical facility confirms that an adverse event has occurred, it shall submit to the department of health:
(a) Notification of the event, with the date, type of adverse event, and any additional contextual information the facility chooses to provide, within forty-eight hours; and
(b) A report regarding the event within forty-five days.
The notification and report shall be submitted to the department using the internet-based system established under RCW 70.56.040(2) if the system is operational.
(c) A medical facility may amend the notification or report within sixty days of the submission.
(3) The notification and report shall be filed in a format specified by the department after consultation with medical facilities and the independent entity if an independent entity has been contracted for under RCW 70.56.040(1). The format shall identify the facility, but shall not include any identifying information for any of the health care professionals, facility employees, or patients involved. This provision does not modify the duty of a hospital to make a report to the department of health or a disciplinary authority if a licensed practitioner has committed unprofessional conduct as defined in RCW 18.130.180.
(4) As part of the report filed under subsection (2)(b) of this section, the medical facility must conduct a root cause analysis of the event, describe the corrective action plan that will be implemented consistent with the findings of the analysis, or provide an explanation of any reasons for not taking corrective action. The department shall adopt rules, in consultation with medical facilities and the independent entity if an independent entity has been contracted for under RCW 70.56.040(1), related to the form and content of the root cause analysis and corrective action plan. In developing the rules, consideration shall be given to existing standards for root cause analysis or corrective action plans adopted by the joint commission on accreditation of health facilities and other national or governmental entities.
(5) If, in the course of investigating a complaint received from an employee of a medical facility, the department determines that the facility has not provided notification of an adverse event or undertaken efforts to investigate the occurrence of an adverse event, the department shall direct the facility to provide notification or to undertake an investigation of the event.
(6) The protections of RCW 43.70.075 apply to notifications of adverse events that are submitted in good faith by employees of medical facilities.
[ 2009 c 495 s 12; 2008 c 136 s 1; 2006 c 8 s 106.]
Notes:
Effective date—2009 c 495: See note following RCW 43.20.050.

catchline: Notification of adverse health events—Notification and report required—Rules.


title: RCW 70.56.030

text:
(1) The department shall:
(a) Receive and investigate, where necessary, notifications and reports of adverse events, including root cause analyses and corrective action plans submitted as part of reports, and communicate to individual facilities the department's conclusions, if any, regarding an adverse event reported by a facility; and
(b) Adopt rules as necessary to implement this chapter.
(2) The department may enforce the reporting requirements of RCW 70.56.020 using its existing enforcement authority provided in chapter 18.46 RCW for childbirth centers, chapter 70.41 RCW for hospitals, and chapter 71.12 RCW for *psychiatric hospitals.
[ 2009 c 495 s 13; 2009 c 488 s 1; 2007 c 259 s 13; 2006 c 8 s 107.]
Notes:
Reviser's note: *(1) The term "psychiatric hospital" was changed to "behavioral health hospital" by 2024 c 121 s 19.
(2) This section was amended by 2009 c 488 s 1 and by 2009 c 495 s 13, each without reference to the other. Both amendments are incorporated in the publication of this section under RCW 1.12.025(2). For rule of construction, see RCW 1.12.025(1).
Effective date—2009 c 495: See note following RCW 43.20.050.
Subheadings not law—2007 c 259: See note following RCW 7.70.060.

catchline: Department of health—Duties—Rules.


title: RCW 70.56.040

text:
(1) To the extent funds are appropriated specifically for this purpose, the department shall contract with a qualified, independent entity to receive notifications and reports of adverse events and incidents, and carry out the activities specified in this section. In establishing qualifications for, and choosing the independent entity, the department shall strongly consider the patient safety organization criteria included in the federal patient safety and quality improvement act of 2005, P.L. 109-41, and any regulations adopted to implement this chapter.
(2) If an independent entity is contracted for under subsection (1) of this section, the independent entity shall:
(a) In collaboration with the department of health, establish an internet-based system for medical facilities and the health care workers of a medical facility to submit notifications and reports of adverse events and incidents, which shall be accessible twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week. The system shall be a portal to report both adverse events and incidents, and notifications and reports of adverse events shall be immediately transmitted to the department. The system shall be a secure system that protects the confidentiality of personal health information and provider and facility specific information submitted in notifications and reports, including appropriate encryption and an accurate means of authenticating the identity of users of the system. When the system becomes operational, medical facilities shall submit all notifications and reports by means of the system;
(b) Collect, analyze, and evaluate data regarding notifications and reports of adverse events and incidents, including the identification of performance indicators and patterns in frequency or severity at certain medical facilities or in certain regions of the state;
(c) Develop recommendations for changes in health care practices and procedures, which may be instituted for the purpose of reducing the number or severity of adverse events and incidents;
(d) Directly advise reporting medical facilities of immediate changes that can be instituted to reduce adverse events or incidents;
(e) Issue recommendations to medical facilities on a facility-specific or on a statewide basis regarding changes, trends, and improvements in health care practices and procedures for the purpose of reducing the number and severity of adverse events or incidents. Prior to issuing recommendations, consideration shall be given to the following factors: Expectation of improved quality of care, implementation feasibility, other relevant implementation practices, and the cost impact to patients, payers, and medical facilities. Statewide recommendations shall be issued to medical facilities on a continuing basis and shall be published and posted on a publicly accessible website. The recommendations made to medical facilities under this section shall not be considered mandatory for licensure purposes unless they are adopted by the department as rules pursuant to chapter 34.05 RCW; and
(f) Monitor implementation of reporting systems addressing adverse events or their equivalent in other states and make recommendations to the governor and the legislature as necessary for modifications to this chapter to keep the system as nearly consistent as possible with similar systems in other states.
(3)(a) The independent entity shall report no later than January 1, 2008, and annually thereafter in any year that an independent entity is contracted for under subsection (1) of this section to the governor and the legislature on the activities under this chapter in the preceding year. The report shall include:
(i) The number of adverse events and incidents reported by medical facilities, in the aggregate, on a geographical basis, and a summary of actions taken by facilities in response to the adverse events or incidents;
(ii) In the aggregate, the information derived from the data collected, including any recognized trends concerning patient safety;
(iii) Recommendations for statutory or regulatory changes that may help improve patient safety in the state; and
(iv) Information, presented in the aggregate, to inform and educate consumers and providers, on best practices and prevention tools that medical facilities are implementing to prevent adverse events as well as other patient safety initiatives medical facilities are undertaking to promote patient safety.
(b) The annual report shall be made available for public inspection and shall be posted on the department's and the independent entity's website.
(4) The independent entity shall conduct all activities under this section in a manner that preserves the confidentiality of facilities, documents, materials, or information made confidential by RCW 70.56.050.
(5) Medical facilities and health care workers may provide notification of incidents to the independent entity. The notification shall be filed in a format specified by the independent entity, after consultation with the department and medical facilities, and shall identify the facility but shall not include any identifying information for any of the health care professionals, facility employees, or patients involved. This provision does not modify the duty of a hospital to make a report to the department or a disciplinary authority if a licensed practitioner has committed unprofessional conduct as defined in RCW 18.130.180. The protections of RCW 43.70.075 apply to notifications of incidents that are submitted in good faith by employees of medical facilities.
[ 2009 c 495 s 14; 2008 c 136 s 2; 2006 c 8 s 108.]
Notes:
Effective date—2009 c 495: See note following RCW 43.20.050.

catchline: Contract with independent entity—Duties of independent entity—Establishment of notification and reporting system—Annual reports to governor, legislature.


title: RCW 70.56.050

text:
(1)(a) When notification of an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a) or of an incident under RCW 70.56.040(5), or a report regarding an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(b) is made by or through a coordinated quality improvement program under RCW 43.70.510 or 70.41.200, or by a peer review committee under RCW 4.24.250, information and documents, including complaints and incident reports, created specifically for and collected and maintained by a quality improvement committee for the purpose of preparing a notification of an adverse event or incident or a report regarding an adverse event, the report itself, and the notification of an incident, shall be subject to the confidentiality protections of those laws and RCW 42.56.360(1)(c).
(b) The notification of an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a), shall be subject to public disclosure and not exempt from disclosure under chapter 42.56 RCW. Any public disclosure of an adverse event notification must include any contextual information the medical facility chose to provide under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a).
(2)(a) When notification of an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a) or of an incident under RCW 70.56.040(5), or a report regarding an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(b), made by a health care worker uses information and documents, including complaints and incident reports, created specifically for and collected and maintained by a quality improvement committee under RCW 43.70.510 or 70.41.200 or a peer review committee under RCW 4.24.250, a notification of an incident, the report itself, and the information or documents used for the purpose of preparing notifications or the report, shall be subject to the confidentiality protections of those laws and RCW 42.56.360(1)(c).
(b) The notification of an adverse event under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a) shall be subject to public disclosure and not exempt from disclosure under chapter 42.56 RCW. Any public disclosure of an adverse event notification must include any contextual information the medical facility chose to provide under RCW 70.56.020(2)(a).
[ 2008 c 136 s 3; 2006 c 8 s 110.]

catchline: Confidentiality of notifications and reports.


title: RCW 70.56.900

text: See notes following RCW 5.64.010.

catchline: Findings—Intent—Part headings and subheadings not law—Severability—2006 c 8.


title: RCW 70.58.230

text:
It is unlawful for any person to inter; deposit in a vault, grave, or tomb; perform alkaline hydrolysis or natural organic reduction as defined in RCW 68.04.310; or otherwise dispose of, or disinter or remove from one registration district to another, or hold for more than three business days after death, the human remains of any person whose death occurred in this state or any human remains which shall be found in this state, without obtaining, from the local registrar of the district in which the death occurred or in which the human remains were found, a permit for the burial, disinterment, or removal of the human remains. However, a licensed funeral director or embalmer of this state or a funeral establishment licensed in another state contiguous to Washington, with a current certificate of removal registration issued by the director of the department of licensing, may remove human remains from the district where the death occurred to another registration district or Oregon or Idaho without having obtained a permit but in such cases the funeral director or embalmer must at the time of removing human remains file with or mail to the local registrar of the district where the death occurred a notice of removal upon a blank to be furnished by the state registrar. The notice of removal must be signed or electronically approved by the funeral director or embalmer and must contain the name and address of the local registrar with whom the certificate of death will be filed and the burial-transit permit secured. Every local registrar, accepting a death certificate and issuing a burial-transit permit for a death that occurred outside his or her district, is entitled to a fee of one dollar to be paid by the funeral director or embalmer at the time the death certificate is accepted and the permit is secured. It is unlawful for any person to bring into or transport within the state or inter, deposit in a vault, grave, or tomb, or cremate or otherwise dispose of human remains of any person whose death occurred outside this state unless the human remains are accompanied by a removal or transit permit issued in accordance with the law and health regulations in force where the death occurred, or unless a special permit for bringing the human remains into this state is obtained from the state registrar.
[ 2019 c 432 s 30; 2009 c 231 s 4; 2005 c 365 s 157; 1961 ex.s. c 5 s 16; 1915 c 180 s 3; 1907 c 83 s 4; RRS s 6021.]
Notes:
Reviser's note: RCW 70.58.230 was amended by 2019 c 432 s 30, effective May 1, 2020, without cognizance of its repeal by 2019 c 148 s 40, effective January 1, 2021. For rule of construction concerning sections amended and repealed in the same legislative session, see RCW 1.12.025.
Effective date—2019 c 432: See note following RCW 68.05.175.
Cemeteries and human remains: Title 68 RCW.
PDF
RCW 70.58.230
Permits for burial, removal, etc., required—Removal to another district without permit, notice to registrar, fee.
[ 2009 c 231 s 4; 2005 c 365 s 157; 1961 ex.s. c 5 s 16; 1915 c 180 s 3; 1907 c 83 s 4; RRS s 6021.]
Notes:
Reviser's note: RCW 70.58.230 was amended by 2019 c 432 s 30 without cognizance of its repeal by 2019 c 148 s 40, effective January 1, 2021. For rule of construction concerning sections amended and repealed in the same legislative session, see RCW 1.12.025.


title: RCW 70.58.260

text:
It is unlawful for any person in charge of any premises in which bodies of deceased persons are interred, cremated, or otherwise permanently disposed of, to permit the final disposition, or other disposition of any body upon such premises unless it is accompanied by a burial, removal, or transit permit as provided in this chapter. It is the duty of the person in charge of any such premises to, in case of the interment, cremation, alkaline hydrolysis, natural organic reduction as defined in RCW 68.04.310, or other disposition of human remains therein, endorse upon the permit the date and character of such disposition, over his or her signature or electronic approval, to return all permits so endorsed to the local registrar of the district in which the death occurred within ten days from the date of such disposition, and to keep a record of all human remains disposed of on the premises under his or her charge, stating, in each case, the name of the deceased person, if known, the place of death, the date of burial or other disposition, and the name and address of the undertaker, which record must at all times be open to public inspection, and it is the duty of every undertaker, or person acting as such, when burying human remains in a cemetery or burial grounds having no person in charge, to sign or electronically approve the burial, removal, or transit permit, giving the date of burial, write across the face of the permit the words "no person in charge," and file the burial, removal, or transit permit within ten days with the registrar of the district in which the death occurred.
[ 2019 c 432 s 31; 2009 c 231 s 7; 2005 c 365 s 159; 1915 c 180 s 7; 1907 c 83 s 10; RRS s 6027.]
Notes:
Reviser's note: RCW 70.58.260 was amended by 2019 c 432 s 31, effective May 1, 2020, without cognizance of its repeal by 2019 c 148 s 40, effective January 1, 2021. For rule of construction concerning sections amended and repealed in the same legislative session, see RCW 1.12.025.
Effective date—2019 c 432: See note following RCW 68.05.175.
PDF
RCW 70.58.260
Burial grounds—Duties of individual in charge of the premises.
[ 2009 c 231 s 7; 2005 c 365 s 159; 1915 c 180 s 7; 1907 c 83 s 10; RRS s 6027.]
Notes:
Reviser's note: RCW 70.58.260 was amended by 2019 c 432 s 31, effective May 1, 2020, without cognizance of its repeal by 2019 c 148 s 40, effective January 1, 2021. For rule of construction concerning sections amended and repealed in the same legislative session, see RCW 1.12.025.


title: RCW 70.58A.005

text:
(1) Protection of public health requires a vital records system that provides proof of vital life events and gathers population health data for assessment, evaluation, research, and other public health purposes. An efficient and effective vital records system is a foundational public health service to support a healthy and productive population.
(2) The purpose of this chapter is to provide a framework for ongoing administration of a single comprehensive vital records system in the state that is operated and maintained by the department, under the supervision of the state registrar, to preserve the security, integrity, and confidentiality of state vital records and vital statistics, established under RCW 43.70.130 and this chapter.
[ 2019 c 148 s 1.]

catchline: Purpose.


title: RCW 70.58A.010

text:
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) "Adult" means a person who is at least eighteen years of age, or an emancipated minor under chapter 13.64 RCW.
(2) "Amendment" means a change to a certification item on the vital record.
(3) "Authorized representative" means a person permitted to receive a certification who is:
(a) Identified in a notarized statement signed by a qualified applicant; or
(b) An agent identified in a power of attorney as defined in chapter 11.125 RCW.
(4) "Certification" means the document, in either paper or electronic format, containing all or part of the information contained in the original vital record from which the document is derived, and is issued from the central vital records system. A certification includes an attestation by the state or local registrar to the accuracy of information, and has the full force and effect of the original vital record.
(5) "Certification item" means any item of information that appears on certifications.
(6) "Coroner" means the person elected or appointed in a county under chapter 36.16 RCW to serve as the county coroner and fulfill the responsibilities established under chapter 36.24 RCW.
(7) "Cremated remains" has the same meaning as "cremated human remains" in chapter 68.04 RCW.
(8) "Delayed report of live birth" means the report submitted to the department for the purpose of registering the live birth of a person born in state that was not registered within one year of the date of live birth.
(9) "Department" means the department of health.
(10) "Domestic partner" means a party to a state registered domestic partnership established under chapter 26.60 RCW.
(11) "Facility" means any licensed establishment, public or private, located in state, which provides inpatient or outpatient medical, surgical, or diagnostic care or treatment; or nursing, custodial, or domiciliary care. The term also includes establishments to which persons are committed by law including, but not limited to:
(a) Mental illness detention facilities designated to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals detained or committed, under chapter 71.05 RCW;
(b) City and county jails;
(c) State department of corrections facilities; and
(d) Juvenile correction centers governed by Title 72 RCW.
(12) "Fetal death" means any product of conception that shows no evidence of life, such as breathing, beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles after complete expulsion or extraction from the individual who gave birth that is not an induced termination of pregnancy and:
(a) Has completed twenty or more weeks of gestation at the date of death based on the best clinically accurate gestational age; or
(b) Weighs three hundred fifty grams or more, if weeks of gestation are not known.
(13) "Final disposition" means the burial, interment, entombment, cremation, removal from the state, or other manner of disposing of human remains as authorized under chapter 68.50 RCW.
(14) "Funeral director" means a person licensed under chapter 18.39 RCW as a funeral director.
(15) "Funeral establishment" means a place of business licensed under chapter 18.39 RCW as a funeral establishment.
(16) "Government agencies" include state boards, commissions, committees, departments, educational institutions, or other state agencies which are created by or pursuant to statute, other than courts and the legislature; county or city agencies, United States federal agencies, and federally recognized tribes and tribal organizations.
(17) "Human remains" means the body of a deceased person, includes the body in any stage of decomposition, and includes cremated human remains, but does not include human remains that are or were at any time under the jurisdiction of the state physical anthropologist under chapter 27.44 RCW.
(18) "Individual" means a natural person.
(19) "Induced termination of pregnancy" means the purposeful interruption of an intrauterine pregnancy with an intention other than to produce a live-born infant, and which does not result in a live birth.
(20) "Informational copy" means a birth or death record issued from the central vital records system, containing all or part of the information contained in the original vital record from which the document is derived, and indicating it cannot be used for legal purposes on its face.
(21) "Legal guardian" means a person who serves as a guardian for the purpose of either legal or custodial matters, or both, relating to the person for whom the guardian is appointed. The term legal guardian includes, but is not limited to, guardians appointed pursuant to chapters 11.130 and 13.36 RCW.
(22) "Legal representative" means a licensed attorney representing either the subject of the record or qualified applicant.
(23) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction of a product of human conception from the individual who gave birth, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, which, after such expulsion or extraction, breathes or shows any other evidence of life, such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles.
(24) "Local health officer" has the same meaning as in chapter 70.05 RCW.
(25) "Medical certifier" for a death or fetal death means an individual required to attest to the cause of death information provided on a report of death or fetal death. Each individual certifying cause of death or fetal death may certify cause of death only as permitted by that individual's professional scope of practice. These individuals include:
(a) A physician, physician's assistant, or an *advanced registered nurse practitioner last in attendance at death or who treated the decedent through examination, medical advice, or medications within the twelve months preceding the death;
(b) A midwife, only in cases of fetal death; and
(c) A physician performing an autopsy, when the decedent was not treated within the last twelve months and the person died a natural death.
(26) "Medical examiner" means the person appointed under chapter 36.24 RCW to fulfill the responsibilities established under chapter 36.24 RCW.
(27) "Midwife" means a person licensed to practice midwifery pursuant to chapter 18.50 RCW.
(28) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine, naturopathy, or osteopathy pursuant to Title 18 RCW.
(29) "Registration" or "register" means the process by which a report is approved and incorporated as a vital record into the vital records system.
(30) "Registration date" means the month, day, and year a report is incorporated into the vital records system.
(31) "Report" means an electronic or paper document containing information related to a vital life event for the purpose of registering the vital life event.
(32) "Sealed record" means the original record of a vital life event and the evidence submitted to support a change to the original record.
(33) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health.
(34) "State" means Washington state unless otherwise specified.
(35) "State registrar" means the person appointed by the secretary to administer the vital records system under RCW 70.58A.030.
(36) "Territory of the United States" means American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, and the United States Virgin Islands.
(37) "Vital life event" means a birth, death, fetal death, marriage, dissolution of marriage, dissolution of domestic partnership, declaration of invalidity of marriage, declaration of invalidity of domestic partnership, and legal separation.
(38) "Vital record" or "record" means a report of a vital life event that has been registered and supporting documentation.
(39) "Vital records system" means the statewide system created, operated, and maintained by the department under this chapter.
(40) "Vital statistics" means the aggregated data derived from vital records, including related reports, and supporting documentation.
[ 2026 c 45 s 1; 2020 c 312 s 729; 2019 c 148 s 2.]
Notes:
*Reviser's note: The term "advanced registered nurse practitioner" was changed to "advanced practice registered nurse" by 2024 c 239 s 1, effective June 30, 2027.
Expiration date—2026 c 45 s 1: "Section 1 of this act expires June 30, 2027." [ 2026 c 45 s 3.]
Effective dates—2020 c 312: See note following RCW 11.130.915.
PDF
RCW 70.58A.010
Definitions. (Effective June 30, 2027.)
The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
(1) "Adult" means a person who is at least eighteen years of age, or an emancipated minor under chapter 13.64 RCW.
(2) "Amendment" means a change to a certification item on the vital record.
(3) "Authorized representative" means a person permitted to receive a certification who is:
(a) Identified in a notarized statement signed by a qualified applicant; or
(b) An agent identified in a power of attorney as defined in chapter 11.125 RCW.
(4) "Certification" means the document, in either paper or electronic format, containing all or part of the information contained in the original vital record from which the document is derived, and is issued from the central vital records system. A certification includes an attestation by the state or local registrar to the accuracy of information, and has the full force and effect of the original vital record.
(5) "Certification item" means any item of information that appears on certifications.
(6) "Coroner" means the person elected or appointed in a county under chapter 36.16 RCW to serve as the county coroner and fulfill the responsibilities established under chapter 36.24 RCW.
(7) "Cremated remains" has the same meaning as "cremated human remains" in chapter 68.04 RCW.
(8) "Delayed report of live birth" means the report submitted to the department for the purpose of registering the live birth of a person born in state that was not registered within one year of the date of live birth.
(9) "Department" means the department of health.
(10) "Domestic partner" means a party to a state registered domestic partnership established under chapter 26.60 RCW.
(11) "Facility" means any licensed establishment, public or private, located in state, which provides inpatient or outpatient medical, surgical, or diagnostic care or treatment; or nursing, custodial, or domiciliary care. The term also includes establishments to which persons are committed by law including, but not limited to:
(a) Mental illness detention facilities designated to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals detained or committed, under chapter 71.05 RCW;
(b) City and county jails;
(c) State department of corrections facilities; and
(d) Juvenile correction centers governed by Title 72 RCW.
(12) "Fetal death" means any product of conception that shows no evidence of life, such as breathing, beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles after complete expulsion or extraction from the individual who gave birth that is not an induced termination of pregnancy and:
(a) Has completed twenty or more weeks of gestation at the date of death based on the best clinically accurate gestational age; or
(b) Weighs three hundred fifty grams or more, if weeks of gestation are not known.
(13) "Final disposition" means the burial, interment, entombment, cremation, removal from the state, or other manner of disposing of human remains as authorized under chapter 68.50 RCW.
(14) "Funeral director" means a person licensed under chapter 18.39 RCW as a funeral director.
(15) "Funeral establishment" means a place of business licensed under chapter 18.39 RCW as a funeral establishment.
(16) "Government agencies" include state boards, commissions, committees, departments, educational institutions, or other state agencies which are created by or pursuant to statute, other than courts and the legislature; county or city agencies, United States federal agencies, and federally recognized tribes and tribal organizations.
(17) "Human remains" means the body of a deceased person, includes the body in any stage of decomposition, and includes cremated human remains, but does not include human remains that are or were at any time under the jurisdiction of the state physical anthropologist under chapter 27.44 RCW.
(18) "Individual" means a natural person.
(19) "Induced termination of pregnancy" means the purposeful interruption of an intrauterine pregnancy with an intention other than to produce a live-born infant, and which does not result in a live birth.
(20) "Informational copy" means a birth or death record issued from the central vital records system, containing all or part of the information contained in the original vital record from which the document is derived, and indicating it cannot be used for legal purposes on its face.
(21) "Legal guardian" means a person who serves as a guardian for the purpose of either legal or custodial matters, or both, relating to the person for whom the guardian is appointed. The term legal guardian includes, but is not limited to, guardians appointed pursuant to chapters 11.130 and 13.36 RCW.
(22) "Legal representative" means a licensed attorney representing either the subject of the record or qualified applicant.
(23) "Live birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction of a product of human conception from the individual who gave birth, irrespective of the duration of pregnancy, which, after such expulsion or extraction, breathes or shows any other evidence of life, such as beating of the heart, pulsation of the umbilical cord, or definite movement of voluntary muscles.
(24) "Local health officer" has the same meaning as in chapter 70.05 RCW.
(25) "Medical certifier" for a death or fetal death means an individual required to attest to the cause of death information provided on a report of death or fetal death. Each individual certifying cause of death or fetal death may certify cause of death only as permitted by that individual's professional scope of practice. These individuals include:
(a) A physician, physician's assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse last in attendance at death or who treated the decedent through examination, medical advice, or medications within the twelve months preceding the death;
(b) A midwife, only in cases of fetal death; and
(c) A physician performing an autopsy, when the decedent was not treated within the last twelve months and the person died a natural death.
(26) "Medical examiner" means the person appointed under chapter 36.24 RCW to fulfill the responsibilities established under chapter 36.24 RCW.
(27) "Midwife" means a person licensed to practice midwifery pursuant to chapter 18.50 RCW.
(28) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine, naturopathy, or osteopathy pursuant to Title 18 RCW.
(29) "Registration" or "register" means the process by which a report is approved and incorporated as a vital record into the vital records system.
(30) "Registration date" means the month, day, and year a report is incorporated into the vital records system.
(31) "Report" means an electronic or paper document containing information related to a vital life event for the purpose of registering the vital life event.
(32) "Sealed record" means the original record of a vital life event and the evidence submitted to support a change to the original record.
(33) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health.
(34) "State" means Washington state unless otherwise specified.
(35) "State registrar" means the person appointed by the secretary to administer the vital records system under RCW 70.58A.030.
(36) "Territory of the United States" means American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, and the United States Virgin Islands.
(37) "Vital life event" means a birth, death, fetal death, marriage, dissolution of marriage, dissolution of domestic partnership, declaration of invalidity of marriage, declaration of invalidity of domestic partnership, and legal separation.
(38) "Vital record" or "record" means a report of a vital life event that has been registered and supporting documentation.
(39) "Vital records system" means the statewide system created, operated, and maintained by the department under this chapter.
(40) "Vital statistics" means the aggregated data derived from vital records, including related reports, and supporting documentation.
[ 2026 c 45 s 2; 2025 c 58 s 5138; 2020 c 312 s 729; 2019 c 148 s 2.]
Notes:
Effective date—2026 c 45 s 2: "Section 2 of this act takes effect June 30, 2027." [ 2026 c 45 s 4.]
Effective date—2025 c 58 ss 5058-5170: See note following RCW 7.68.030.
Explanatory note—2025 c 58: See note following RCW 1.16.050.
Effective dates—2020 c 312: See note following RCW 11.130.915.

catchline: Definitions. (Effective until June 30, 2027.)


title: RCW 70.58A.020

text:
(1) The secretary shall have charge of the state vital records system and shall adopt rules to ensure implementation of the vital records system and this chapter.
(2) The secretary may adopt rules to set fees for services related to the vital records system including, but not limited to, expediting requests, verification and access for government agencies, registering reports of delayed birth, amending vital records, and releasing vital records and vital statistics.
(3) The state board of health may adopt, amend, or repeal rules requiring statistical information related to birth and manner of delivery.
[ 2019 c 148 s 3.]

catchline: Rule-making authority.


title: RCW 70.58A.030

text:
The secretary shall appoint the state registrar in accordance with RCW 43.70.020 and 43.70.150.
[ 2019 c 148 s 4.]

catchline: Appointment of the state registrar.


title: RCW 70.58A.040

text:
(1) The state registrar shall administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter and shall:
(a) Administer the operation and maintenance of the vital records system to preserve the security, integrity, and confidentiality of state vital records and vital statistics established under RCW 43.70.130 and 43.70.150 and this chapter;
(b) Prescribe paper and electronic forms needed to carry out the purposes of this chapter;
(c) Prescribe the information required in forms, reports, vital records, certifications, or other documents authorized by this chapter;
(d) Prescribe the means for transmission of data, including electronic submission, necessary to accomplish the purpose of complete, accurate, and timely reporting and registration;
(e) Review reports to determine if additional information is necessary to register the report. If any reports are incomplete, the state registrar shall require submission of information necessary to make the record complete;
(f) Deny or revoke registration of a report or application for an amendment, or withhold or deny issuance of a certification for the reasons permitted by this chapter;
(g) Prepare and publish vital statistics pursuant to this chapter;
(h) Prepare a plan to provide for the continuity of operations of the vital records system in the event of an emergency;
(i) Take measures to prevent the fraudulent use of vital records; and
(j) Perform data quality assurance and record matching activities.
(2) The state registrar may delegate functions and duties vested in the state registrar under this section to employees of the department.
(3) The state registrar may appoint a deputy state registrar, with the concurrence of the secretary, with the same authority granted to the state registrar under this chapter.
[ 2019 c 148 s 5.]

catchline: Duties of the state registrar.