TITLE: An example in which the Fubini theorem is inapplicable
QUESTION [5 upvotes]: This is example 8.9(a) in Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis, (alternatively, exercise 10.2 in Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis).
Let $X$ and $Y$ be the closed unit interval $[0,1]$, let $\{\delta_n\}$ be an increasing sequence of distinct points in $[0,1]$ that converges to $1$, and to each positive integer $n$, let $g_n$ be a real continuous function on $[0,1]$ with support in $(\delta_n,\delta_{n+1})$, and such that $\int_{0}^{1} g_n(t)~dt=1$. Define $f$ over $X\times Y$ as follows:
$$
f(x,y):=\sum_{n=1}^\infty[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y).
$$
If $x$ is held fixed, then $g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)$ is nonzero for at most two choices of $n$, and $f$ reduces to a finite sum. So,
\begin{align*}
\int_X~dx\int_Y f(x,y)~dy&=\int_0^1~dx\int_0^1\sum_{n=1}^\infty[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y)~dy \\
&=\int_0^1~dx\sum_{n=1}^\infty\int_0^1[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y)~dy \\
&=\int_0^1\sum_{n=1}^\infty g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)~dx \\
&=\int_0^1 g_1(x)~dx=1.
\end{align*}
On the other hand, if $y$ is held fixed, then $g_n(y)$ is nonzero for at most one choice of $n$, and $f$ reduces to a finite sum. So,
\begin{align*}
\int_Y~dy\int_X f(x,y)~dx&=\int_0^1~dy\int_0^1\sum_{n=1}^\infty[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y)~dx \\
&=\int_0^1~dy\sum_{n=1}^\infty\int_0^1[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y)~dx\\
&=\int_0^1 \sum_{n=1}^\infty g_n(y)-g_n(y)~dy\\
&=\int_0^1 0~dy = 0.
\end{align*}
The double integrals are not interchangeable in this example, in part, because
$$
\int_0^1~dx\int_0^1|f(x,y)|~dy=\infty.
$$
Why is this true?

REPLY [2 votes]: You cannot simply interchange the sum and integral without justifying it. 
Let me repeat the premise, i.e.

Let $X$ and $Y$ be the closed unit interval $[0,1]$, let $\{\delta_n\}$ be an increasing sequence of distinct points in $[0,1]$ that converges to $1$, and to each positive integer $n$, let $g_n$ be a real continuous function on $[0,1]$ with support in $(\delta_n,\delta_{n+1})$, and such that $\int_{0}^{1} g_n(t)~dt=1$. Define $f$ over $X\times Y$ as follows:
  $$
f(x,y):=\sum_{n=1}^\infty[g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y).
$$


Set $$h(x)=\int_0^1 f(x,y)dy,$$
then $$ h(x)=\begin{cases}\displaystyle\int_0^1 g_1(x)g_1(y)dy=g_1(x),& x\in(\delta_1,\delta_2);\\
\displaystyle\int_0^1 [g_n(x)g_n(y)-g_n(x)g_{n-1}(y)]dy=0,& x\in(\delta_n,\delta_{n+1}),\ \forall n\in\mathbb Z_{> 1}.\end{cases} $$
Hence $$ \int_0^1dx\int_0^1f(x,y)dy=\int_0^1h(x)dx=\int_0^1g_1(x)dx=1. $$

However, if we set $$ h(y)=\int_0^1f(x,y)dx, $$ then we have
$$ h(y)=\int_0^1 [g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)]g_n(y)dx=0,\ x\in(\delta_n,\delta_{n+1}),\ \forall n\in\mathbb Z_{\ge 1}. $$ Hence $$ \int_0^1dy\int_0^1f(x,y)dx=\int_0^1h(y)dy=0. $$

To see that $$ \int_0^1dy\int_0^1|f(x,y)|dx=\infty ,$$
set $$ h(y)=\int_0^1|f(x,y)|dx ,$$ then when $y\in(\delta_n,\delta_{n+1})$, $n\in\mathbb Z_{\ge 1}$, we have
\begin{align}
h(y)&=\int_0^1|g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)||g_n(y)|dx\\
&=|g_n(y)|\int_0^1|g_n(x)-g_{n+1}(x)|dx\\
&=|g_n(y)|\left(\int_0^1|g_n(x)|dx+\int_0^1|g_{n+1}(x)|dx\right)\\
&\ge 2|g_n(y)|.
\end{align}
Then we have
\begin{align}
\int_0^1dy\int_0^1|f(x,y)|dx&=\int_0^1h(y)dy\\
&\ge\sum_{n=1}^N\int_{\delta_n}^{\delta_{n+1}}2|g_n(y)|dy\\
&\ge 2N\to\infty\ \text{as}\ N\to\infty.
\end{align} By Fubini Theorem, we know that
$$ \int_0^1dx\int_0^1|f(x,y)|dy=\int_0^1dy\int_0^1|f(x,y)| dx=\infty.$$