TITLE: Finding the kernel of maps between (polynomial) rings
QUESTION [7 upvotes]: If I have a map between rings like $f\colon k[x_1,x_2]\to k[t],x_1\mapsto t^2-1,x_2\mapsto t^3-t$, how can I prove that the kernel is $\mathfrak{a}=(x_2^2-x_1^2(x_1+1))$?

I see that $\mathfrak{a}\subseteq \ker(f)$ as $x_2^2-x_1^2(x_1+1)$ is clearly mapped to $0$, but I don't see how to do the other direction.
My idea was to assume $p\in\ker(f)$ which would imply $p(t^2-1,t^3-t)=0$, but I am missing the connection to $\mathfrak{a}$.

REPLY [4 votes]: Here's a proof that uses Krull dimension.
Observations: $\ker f$ and $\mathfrak a$ are prime.
$\ker f$ is prime because $k[x_1,x_2]/\ker f$ is an integral domain,
$\mathfrak a$ is prime because is generated by an irreducible element of $k[x_1,x_2]$ which is an UFD, hence it is generated by a prime element.
In $\text{Im} f=k[t^2-1,t^3-t]$ the element $t^3-t$ is integral over $k[t^2-1]$, is a root of the polynomial $X^2-(t^2-1)^2((t^2-1)+1)$, hence $\dim k[t^2-1,t^3-1]=\dim k[t^2-1]=1$.
From this it follows that $\ker f$ has height $1$ but $k[x_1,x_2]$ has dimension $2$ henceforth $\ker f$ can contain only $(0)$ as a proper prime subideal, so $\mathfrak a=\ker f$.