TITLE: Positivity of a determinant
QUESTION [8 upvotes]: I'm stuck to prove the following exercise : Given real numbers $x_1,\ldots,x_n$ and $y_1,\ldots,y_n$, show that 
$$
\det(e^{\large{x_iy_j}})_{i,j=1}^n>0
$$
provided that $x_1<\cdots<x_n$ and $y_1<\cdots<y_n$. 
Any idea ?

REPLY [4 votes]: It suffices to prove that given  $x_1<\ldots <x_n$ and $y_1<\ldots <y_n$ the determinant $D$ of the matrix $M=\left(e^{x_iy_j}\right)_{1\leq i,j\leq n}$ is nonzero.
Indeed, $D$ is a continuous real function on the open connected subset
$$
U=\{(\bar{x},\bar{y}):x_1<\ldots <x_n\ \wedge\ y_1<\ldots <y_n\} \subset \mathbb{R}^n\times\mathbb{R}^n
$$
, hence, if it never vanishes, it must be always positive or always negative.
Then you check positivity for a particular choice of the variables
(for example, for $x_j=j-1$ you get a Vandermonde determinant and positivity is an easy check).
To prove the nonvanishing of the determinant, we use induction on $n$, imagine to fix the values of $x_1,\ldots, x_{n-1}$ and of $y_1,\ldots ,y_n$ and let vary $x_n=z$ over $\mathbb{R}$. Consider the determinant $D(z)$ of $M$ as a function of $z$. 
Clearly, we have $D(x_i)=0$ for $i=1,\ldots n-1$ and we expect (if the thesis is true) that $D(z)$ does not vanishes elsewhere.
Using Laplace expansion for the determinant we see that $D(z)$ has the following form
$$
D(z)= A_1 (e^{y_1})^z+\ldots A_n (e^{y_n})^z
$$
with coefficients $A_j\neq 0$ (by induction on $n$).
Now to conclude it is natural to recall a well-known fact about exponential polynomials.
Lemma 1
Let $\rho_1\ldots,\rho_n$ positive distinct real numbers and  $c_1,\ldots, c_n\in\mathbb{R}$ non vanishing real numbers.
Then the equation $\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n c_i\rho_i^z=0$ has at most $n-1$ solutions $z\in\mathbb{R}$
Lemma 1 it is a direct corollary of the more general.
Lemma 2
Let $\rho_1\ldots,\rho_n$ positive distinct real numbers and  $c_1,\ldots, c_n\in\mathbb{R}[x]$ non trivial polynomials with real coefficients.
Then the equation $\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n c_i(z)\rho_i^z=0$ has at most $\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n (deg(c_i)+1)-1$.
Lemma 2 is easily proven using only induction and Rolle's theorem.