TITLE: How to prove this definite integral does not depend on the parameter?
QUESTION [9 upvotes]: I am working on some development formulas for surfaces and as a byproduct of abstract theory i get that:
$$\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{1+\sin^2\theta}{(\cos^4\theta+(\gamma\cos^2\theta-\sin\theta)^2)^\frac{3}{4}}d\theta$$
is independent on the parameter $\gamma\in\mathbb{R}$. I thought that there was something wrong with my calculations but actually turns out that using Mathematica that the value is somewhat near $5,24412$ independently on the $\gamma$ I plug in the calculation of the integral. Is there any way to verify that actually this is a constant by direct computations, complex analysis, or at least is this kind of integrals studied?
Edit:obviously differentiating in the integral does not help much

REPLY [12 votes]: Put
\begin{equation*}
I = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\dfrac{1+\sin^2\theta}{(\cos^4\theta +(\gamma\cos^2\theta-\sin \theta)^2)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\, d\theta
\end{equation*}
If $x = \dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta}$,  $\, y = \gamma-x$ and $y = \sqrt{z}$ then
\begin{equation*}
dx = \dfrac{\cos^2\theta+2\sin^2\theta}{\cos^3\theta}\, d\theta
\end{equation*}
and
\begin{gather*}
I = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\dfrac{\cos^2\theta+2\sin^2\theta}{\cos^3\theta\left(1 +\left(\gamma-\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos^2\theta}\right)^2\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\, d\theta = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{\left(1 +\left(\gamma- x\right)^2\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\, dx = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{\left(1 +y^2\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}}\, dy = \\[2ex]
\int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{z^{\frac{1}{2}-1}}{(1+z)^{\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}}}\, dz = {\rm B}\left(\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{2}\right) \approx 5.244115109
\end{gather*}
where ${\rm B}$ is the Beta function.