TITLE: Completion of measure spaces - uniqueness
QUESTION [5 upvotes]: If $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ is a measure space,
  $(X,\mathcal{B},\overline{\mu})$ is complete,
  $\mathcal{B}\supset\mathcal{A}$, and $\overline{\mu}(A)=\mu(A)$ for
  every $A\in\mathcal{A}$, is $(X,\mathcal{B},\overline{\mu})$
  necessarily the completion of $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$?

My definition of completion is:
The completion of $\mathcal{A}$ is the smallest $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{B}$ containing $\mathcal{A}$ such that $(X,\mathcal{B},\mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $\mathcal{B}$ is necessarily the smallest $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?

REPLY [5 votes]: As stated the result is surely false. If $(X,\mathcal A, \mu)$ is already complete you are asserting that we cannot extend the measure to a larger sigma algebra. Take $\mathcal A$ to be trivial sigma algebra (consisting of just the empty set and the whole space) to get obvious counter-examples.

REPLY [2 votes]: In general, the extension you are looking for is not unique. 
Let $X=[0,1]$, for example, and consider the trivial $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal A=\{\emptyset, X\}$. Let $\mu(\emptyset)=0$ and $\mu(X)=1$. 
This is complete, but there are a lot of different ways to extend it to a complete measure on a finer $\sigma$-algebra. 
For example, $\mathcal B$ can be all subsets of $X$, and the measure can be any Dirac measure. 
Or the Lebesgue measure is also good.