TITLE: Why Large deviation theory?
QUESTION [8 upvotes]: I am trying to understand why we need Large deviation theory/principle.
Here is what I understand so far based on the Wikipedia.
 Let $S_n$ be a random variable which depends on $n$.
We are interested in

How the probability $P(S_n > x)$ changes as $n \to \infty$.

Very often, LDT concerns with how fast $P(S_n >x)$ converges to $0$.
Then the answer to the above question is already known, it is $0$.
Then one might be interested in how fast it converges.
So I understand the notion of the ration function $I(x)$.
Here I what I don't understand:

In order to know $P(S_n > x)$, it is a matter of finding the cumulative distribution function of $S_n$, as
$$
P(S_n > x) = 1 - P(S_n < x) = 1 - F_{S_n}(x).
$$
Then once we know the pdf of $S_n$, say $f_{S_n}(x)$, one can easily obtain
$$
P(S_n > x) = \int_x^{\infty} f_{S_n}(t)dt.
$$
If this is the case, I am not sure why we need LDP.
Okay, it is not always the case where we know the pdf of $S_n$.
If it is the case, I think the problem is then to estimate $P(S_n > x)$.
However, it seems that many LDP approaches require to compute certain generating functions. For example,
$$
\lambda(k) = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \ln E[e^{nkS_n}],
\qquad
I(s) = \sup_{k \in \mathbb{R}} \{ks - \lambda(k)\}.
$$
It seems that calculating the aboves are definitely a lot harder than a direct calculation of $P(S_n > x)$. Thus I don't understand why people introduces quantities which a lot harder to obtain.
"Why the rate?"
Ok, regardless of #1 and #2, let say we have $I(x)$. What now? 
Given $I(x)$, can we estimate $P(S_n > x)$? or can we do something useful? 
Or Is the LDP devoted to derive the rate function $I(x)$?

Any comments or answers will very be appreciated.

REPLY [4 votes]: For 1: "easily obtain" is a misnomer here. As an example you can get estimates for $P(S_n>x)$ very easily just by appealing to the CLT. The problem is that the CLT does not hold when you are too far from the mean (as a function of $n$). So you can "easily obtain" that $P(S_n>x)$ is close t0 0, just like the gaussian distribution, but it's not at all clear how close. 
As an example, imagine that $S_n$ denotes insurance payments for disasters on a yearly basis. The chance of there being a hurricane that causes a 10 trillion dollars of damage is close to 0. But how close to 0? Are we talking once every 10 years? 100 years? 1000000 years? To price your insurance policy, you'd need a good estimate on this, as a gaussian distribution would generally grossly underestimate this probability.
For 2: note that it's not harder, necessarily. Exponention is really natural, as in some easy situations, by markov's inequality, $P(S_n>x)= P(e^{S_nt}>e^{xt})\leq \frac{\phi(t)}{e^{t\epsilon}}$, where $\phi$ is the moment generating function, gives you a decent bound after minimizing in $t$. What's difficult is the lower bound on $P(S_n>x)$, and this usually takes the most work in large deviations theory.
For 3: $E[e^{nkS_n}]$, written out as an approximate Riemman sum is effectively Laplace's Approximation at work: $e^{-an}+e^{-bn}\approx e^{-an}$ when $a<b$ (e.g, even if a=b-0.000001). There's a saying that "rare events happen in the cheapest way possible", and this captures that statement: the most probable rare event is the one that carries the smallest exponent, and this is exactly where the concept of a "rate" comes in, to pin how fast it goes to 0.