TITLE: Proving concavity of derivative
QUESTION [5 upvotes]: Let $f(x)$ be  defined and continuous and derivable for $x>-1$,
  $f(0)=1$, $f’(0)=0$ and
  $$f''(x) = \frac {1+x}{1+f(x)}.$$
  Prove that $f’(x)$ is concave up for all $x>-1$.

My attempt: 
I tried to integrate by multiplying both sides by $dy/dx$ 
but could not proceed further.

REPLY [2 votes]: Let $h(x)=f'(x)$, $x\in(-1,+\infty)$ and 
$$
f''(x)=\frac{1+x}{1+f(x)},\tag 1
$$ 
then 
$$
h''(x)=f'''(x)=\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{1+x}{1+f(x)}\right)=\frac{1+f(x)-(1+x)f'(x)}{(1+f(x))^2}.
$$
Set 
$$
g(x):=1+f(x)-(1+x)f'(x)\textrm{, }x>-1,
$$
then 
$$
g'(x)=f'(x)-f'(x)-(1+x)f''(x)=-\frac{(1+x)^2}{1+f(x)}.
$$ 
But $f(x)+1>0$, $\forall x\in(-1,+\infty)$. Otherwise if exists $x_0>-1$ such $f(x_0)+1<0$, then we define the function $P(x)=f(x)+1$, $x>-1$. Then $P(x_0)<0$ and $P(0)=f(0)+1=2>0$. Hence from Bolzano theorem exists $\rho\in(x_0,0)$ (resp. $\rho\in(0,x_0))$ such $P(\rho)=0$ and hence $f(\rho)=-1$. But from (1) 
we get $f''(\rho)=\infty$, if $\rho\neq-1$. Hence $\rho=-1$, which is also contradiction. 
Hence $f(x)>-1$, $\forall x\in(-1,+\infty)$ and therefore 
$$
g'(x)<0\textrm{, }\forall x\in(-1,+\infty).
$$ 
From this last result $g(x)$ is dicreasing in $(-1,+\infty)$. Also we conclude that
$$
f''(x)>0\textrm{, }\forall x\in (-1,+\infty).
$$
Hence $f'(x)$ is increasing. Hence for $x>0$ we get $f'(x)>f'(0)=0$ and if $-1<x<0$, then $f(-1)<f'(x)< f'(0)=0$. Hence 
$$
f(x)\geq f(0)=1\textrm{, }\forall x\in (-1,+\infty)
$$
If $g(x)=0$ has no solution in $(-1,+\infty)$, then from $g(0)=1+1=2>0$, we get $g(x)>0$ and hence $h''(x)=f'''(x)>0$, for all $x>-1$. Hence for $x \geq 0$, $f''(x)\geq f''(0)=\frac{1+0}{1+f(0)}=\frac{1}{2}$. Hence $f'(x)-f'(0)\geq\frac{x}{2}\Rightarrow f'(x)\geq \frac{x}{2}\Rightarrow f(x)\geq\frac{x^2}{4}+1$. Setting this in (1) we get as Eric Yau did 
$$
\frac{1}{2}\leq f''(x)\leq \frac{x+1}{\frac{1}{4}x^2+2}\rightarrow 0\textrm{, }x\rightarrow \infty,
$$ 
which is contradiction. 
Hence exists $x_1$ such that $g(x_1)=0$ and for $x>x_1$, $g(x)<g(x_1)=0$. Also for $-1+\epsilon<x<x_1$, $\epsilon>0$, we have $g(-1+\epsilon)>g(x)>0$. 
Hence $f'''(x)<0$, for $x>x_1$ and $f'''(x)>0$, for $-1+\epsilon<x<x_1$ and $0<f''(x)=h'(x)\leq h'(x_1)$, for all $x>-1+\epsilon$. Hence $f''(x)$ is positive and bounded above by $f''(x_1)$. 
If where more than one roots  (say $-1<x_1<x_2$) of $g(x)=0$ in $(-1,+\infty)$, then exist $\xi\in(x_1,x_2)$ such that $g'(\xi)=0$. But we know that $g'(x)<0$ in $(-1,+\infty)$, and this is not permitable.
Also $x_1>0$ because if $-1<x_1 \leq 0\Rightarrow g(0)\leq g(x_1)<g(-1)\Rightarrow 2<g(x_1)=0$ (not true).
Hence $f'''(0)=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}>0$ and we conclude that exists a $x_1>0$ such that
$$
f'''(x)>0\textrm{, if }x\in(-1,x_1)
$$
and
$$
f'''(x)<0\textrm{, if }x\in(x_1,+\infty).
$$
Note. $x_1\approx 1.4588\pm 10^{-5}$.