TITLE: When is the product of two quotient maps a quotient map?
QUESTION [27 upvotes]: It is not true in general that the product of two quotient maps is a quotient maps (I don't know any examples though).
Are any weaker statements true? For example, if $X, Y, Z$ are spaces and $f : X \to Y$ is a quotient map, is it true that $ f \times {\rm id} : X \times Z \to Y \times Z$ is a quotient map?

REPLY [3 votes]: There is another example that I just learnt from exercise 16, section 2.2 of Algebraic Topology by Tammo Tom Dieck. This is :

Let $X$ be a topological space and $A$ be a compact subspace of $X$. Denote the quotient map $p:X \to X/A$. Then $ p \times id_Y : X \times Y \to X/A \times Y$ is a quotient map for any arbitrary space $Y$.