TITLE: Sobolev Embedding into $L^{\infty}$
QUESTION [6 upvotes]: I tried to find the question here, but I couldn't.
I'm a bit puzzled by Sobolev embeddings at the moment. 
In my lecture notes, I found the statement 

"If $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^d$ is bounded and open with $\partial \Omega \in C^1$, $1 \leq p < \infty$, $k,m \in \mathbb{N}_0$ with $m > k$, then the embedding 
  $$ W^{m,p}(\Omega) \hookrightarrow C^k(\overline{\Omega})$$ 
  is compact, if $m - \tfrac{d}{p} > k$."

In my case, I have $k = 0, \, p = 4, \, m = 1, d \leq 3$. 
So the first question is: 
$1.)$ From this theorem, I could conclude that functions in $W^{1,4}(\Omega)$ can be identified by functions in $C^0(\overline{\Omega})$, right? 
Because if I understand it correctly, this would imply, that I can always find a bounded representant in $W^{1,4}(\Omega)$.
But now I am puzzled, because the book where I wanted to refresh my knowledge about Sobolev Spaces says, that it is not possible to have a continous embedding of the form 
$$ W^{m,p}(\Omega) \hookrightarrow C^0(\Omega).$$
(The book gives with $d = 2$ the function $u(x) = \log(\log|x|)$ as example, but I didn't understand that completely yet.)
$2.)$ If this statement is true, why does the embedding work if I take the closure of $\Omega$? 
Thank you!

REPLY [2 votes]: Thank you so much for your answer! 
I actually managed to resolve my confusion. 
When calculating the given example in the book, one comes to a point where the decisive question is: 
Is $$ \int_0^a \frac{r}{(r \log(r))^p} \, \mathrm{d} r < \infty$$
for $a <  1$. 
But this integral is only finite if $p \leq 2$, so actually the counterexample in the book holds only if $p \leq d$ without stating that at any point.