TITLE: How to generalize this version of Tarski’s Fixed Point Theorem?
QUESTION [6 upvotes]: I could prove the following result from my Real Analysis course:

Let $f:[0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$ be an increasing mapping. Then it has a fixed point.

I understand that this is a very baby version of Tarski’s Fixed Point Theorem. Now, I wish to generalize this a little bit and get the following:

Let $f:[0,1]^n \rightarrow [0,1]^n$ in which $f$ is increasing in the sense that if $y \geq x$ coordinate wise then $f(y) \geq f(x)$ coordinate wise. Then, f has a fixed point.

From my point of view, we could just pick a point $x_0 \in [0,1]^n$, fix all coordinates but one and apply the above lemma to that coordinate. Then, when the first coordinate of the fixed point is found, we do the same for the second and so on.
However, I am not sure this route would be successful and even if it is, I can’t write the extension formally. Any ideas? Thanks a lot in advance!

REPLY [4 votes]: The Knaster–Tarski fixed point theorem states that:

Suppose that $(L,\leq)$ is a complete lattice and $f\colon L\to L$ is increasing, i.e. $x\leq y\implies f(x)\subseteq f(y)$. Then $\{x\in L\mid f(x)=x\}$ is a complete lattice under the induced order.

Note that a complete sublattice cannot be empty, since $\varnothing$ must have a supremum and infimum (which make the bottom and top elements of the lattice).

Note that $[0,1]$ is a complete lattice, and $[0,1]^n$ is also a complete lattice. Granted, now, most uses of this theorem really just care that there is a fixed point. This is commonly used in the proof of the Cantor–Bernstein theorem when we want to find a set closed under some function.
Just finding a fixed point is easy. Let $D=\{x\in L\mid x\geq f(x)\}$ and let $s=\inf D$. Even if $D$ is empty, it still has a infimum, it would just be the top element of $L$. This is because $L$ is a complete lattice. 
Now, if $s<x$, then $f(s)\leq f(x)$. Since this holds for all $x\in D$, it follows that $f(s)\leq s$, by the virtue of being an infimum. Therefore $s\in D$, and it is in fact a minimum. But now we have that $f^2(s)\leq f(s)\leq s$. So $f(s)\in D$ as well, which means that $s\leq f(s)$—again by the virtue of being an infimum—and therefore $f(s)=s$. We can even show that $s$ is the smallest fixed point, i.e. the bottom element of the fixed points lattice.

If we assume continuity of $f$, in the sense that it respects the $\sup$ operator, we get an even easier proof of what is known as the Kleene fixed points theorem.
Let's use $0$ to denote the bottom element of $L$. Then $0\leq f(0)\leq f^2(0)\leq ...$, let $x=\sup\{f^n(0)\mid n\in\Bbb N\}$, which exists since $L$ is a complete lattice. Since $f$ is continuous we get that $$f(x)=f(\sup\{f^n(0)\mid n\in\Bbb N\}) = \sup\{f(f^n(0)\mid n\in\Bbb N\}=\sup\{f^{n+1}(0)\mid n\in\Bbb N\}=x.$$

Finally, we apply these proofs to your question. And you can see that this is essentially the same proof for both $[0,1]$ and $[0,1]^n$. And in fact, much much more.