TITLE: Having trouble understanding condition for Rolle's Theorem (russian translation)
QUESTION [12 upvotes]: I understand the conditions for Rolle's theorem in english : a function $f$ has to be continous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$, and $f(a)=f(b)$. But I'm studying in Russian, and they write the conditions like this:
a) function $f$ is continous on $[a,b]$,
b) function $f$ has at all points of the interval $(a,b)$ a finite or definite sign infinite derivative,
c) $f(a)=f(b)$.
I'm having trouble understanding point b), what does 'definite sign infinite derivative' mean? Is there a difference between that, and simply being differentiable on $(a,b)$? Maybe the translation isn't quite right, my russian isn't perfect, but I think that's what it means in English.
All I could think of was, maybe they are refering to when the limit of $f(x)$ when $x \to a$ or $x \to b$ is equal to $\pm\infty$, but then $f$ wouldn't be continous on $[a,b]$. So, I'm lost.
Do you guys have any ideas? Thanks a lot in advance.

REPLY [8 votes]: For example $y=x^{1/3},$ a continuous function on all of $\mathbb R,$ is not differentiable at $0$ in the usual sense. But it has a "definite sign infinite derivative"  of $+\infty$ at $0.$ I.e., both the left and right derivatives of $x^{1/3}$ at $0$ are $+\infty.$ Contrast this with $y=\sqrt {|x|},$ which has left and right infinite derivatives at $0$ of $-\infty,+\infty$ respectively.