TITLE: Is the limit of power of a stochastic matrix still a stochastic matrix?
QUESTION [5 upvotes]: Suppose $A$ is a right stochastic matrix, which is defined as a square matrix each of whose rows consists of nonnegative real numbers, with each row summing to 1.

If $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} A^n$
exists, is the limit also a right
stochastic matrix?
If not, then if $\lim_{n \rightarrow
    \infty} A^n$ exists and the rows in
the limit are identical, is the
limit still a right stochastic matrix?
I am considering the first part of this theorem from Ross as a counterexample where every element in the limit is 0, and thus the sum in each row is not 1. But I guess in that case the dimension of the matrix $A$ must be countably infinite (although not written out explicitly there and my guess can be wrong) and wonder if a stochastic matrix can be defined for infinite dimension?
if not to the first question in Part 2, is it wrong to say that the
limit distribution of a
discrete-time Markov chain with $A$
as its transition matrix is defined
as the identical rows of $\lim_{n
    \rightarrow \infty} A^n$ if the
limit exists and its rows are
identical? If yes, what is the proper definition for the limit distribution considering the counterexample in Part 2?

Thanks and regards!

REPLY [12 votes]: $\lim_{n \to \infty} A^n$ clearly has non-negative real entries if it exists, so the question is about the stochastic condition. This is equivalent to the condition that $A 1 = 1$ where $1$ is the all-ones vector, and this implies $A^n 1 = 1$, so all the $A^n$ are right stochastic; finally, this condition is (linear, hence) continuous, so is preserved by limits.
The above is for the finite-dimensional case. Here is an example which shows what can go wrong in the infinite-dimensional case. Let $e_1, e_2, ... $ be the "standard basis" and consider the "stochastic" operator $A$ sending $e_i$ to $\frac{1}{2} e_{\lfloor i/2 \rfloor}$. The matrix of $A$ has all rows summing to $1$, but
$$\lim_{n \to \infty} A^n e_i = 0$$
for all $i$, so the pointwise limit of the sequence $A^n$ is the zero operator. This shows that in the infinite-dimensional case the stochastic condition $A 1 = 1$ is not preserved by pointwise limits: one needs something stronger, such as a limit with respect to a norm. 
The basic problem is that the pointwise limit of a sequence of numbers summing to $1$ need not be a sequence of numbers summing to $1$. The simplest example is probably the sequence of sequences
$$1, 0, 0, 0, 0, ...$$
$$\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 0, 0, 0 ...$$
$$\frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{3}, 0, 0...$$
$$\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{4}, 0, ...$$
whose pointwise limit is everywhere $0$; this is essentially the same phenomenon as above. To fix this problem you need to introduce a stronger notion than pointwise limit: for example, since the sum is essentially an $L^1$-norm, convergence in the $L^1$-norm (which is not satisfied in the above example) is enough. 
Note that the above sequence of sequences, as integrable functions on $\mathbb{N}$ with the counting measure, does not satisfy the hypotheses of the dominated convergence theorem. Dominated convergence describes a very general situation in which one can guarantee that pointwise limits preserve sums and integrals: the idea is that without the dominating function, "mass can escape to infinity," which is one way to conceptualize what's going on in the above example. 
Edit: Actually, I guess the very simplest example of mass escaping to infinity is the sequence of sequences
$$1, 0, 0, 0, ...$$
$$0, 1, 0, 0, ...$$
$$0, 0, 1, 0, ...$$
$$0, 0, 0, 1, ...$$