TITLE: P vs NP and Gödel
QUESTION [6 upvotes]: I apologize for the, perhaps, silly question. My impression, as a layman, is that Gödel Incompleteness Theorem should rule out the possibility that P=NP. Is that true or there are deeper technical implications?

REPLY [2 votes]: Diagonalization worked well for Gödel's theorem, but the quest to use it to resolve the P versus NP question has been ruled out by the Baker-Gill-Solovay theorem.