TITLE: Closed form for $a_{n+1} = (a_n)^2+\frac{1}{4}$
QUESTION [11 upvotes]: I've been given the following sequence:
\begin{align*}
&a_0 = 0; \\
&a_{n+1} = (a_n)^2+\frac{1}{4}.
\end{align*}
I also have to prove that whatever I come up with is correct, but that will likely be the easy part. 
Here are the first few values:
\begin{align}
&a_0 = 0 \\
&a_1 = \frac{1}{4}\\
&a_2 = \frac{5}{16}\\
&a_3 = \frac{89}{256} \\
&a_4 = \frac{24305}{65536}
\end{align}
I've managed to to determine that the denominators are of the form $2^{2^n}$. I've tested up to one million terms of this sequence and it appears that $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}a_n = \frac{1}{2}$. I spent a while trying to find something of the form $a_n = \frac{P(n)}{Q(n)}$. I haven't had any luck with this, so I started looking into some sums. I've found that 
\begin{align*}
a_2 = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} = \frac{5}{16}
\end{align*}
and, 
\begin{align*}
a_3 = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{32} + \frac{1}{256} = \frac{89}{256}
\end{align*}
But now, 
\begin{align*}
a_4 = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{16} + \frac{1}{32} + \frac{1}{64} + \frac{1}{128} + \frac{1}{512} + \frac{1}{1024} + \frac{1}{2048} + \frac{1}{4096} + \frac{1}{65536}= \frac{24305}{65536}.
\end{align*}
So it seems that there is some type of sum involving negative powers of 2 going on, but it isn't clear to me that there is even a pattern here. Any hints/help would be appreciated!

REPLY [7 votes]: I just checked OEIS sequence A167424 for which $$f(1)=1/2 \\ f(n+1)=[f(n)^2+1]/2.$$ If this $f$ is divided by 2 you get your sequence $a_1,a_2,\cdots,$
since then it gives correctly $a_1=1/4$ and $a_{n+1}=a_n^2+1/4.$ The recursion on the $a_n=f(n)/2$ follows on dividing through the recursion $f(n+1)=[f(n)^2+1]/2$ by 2 to obtain
$$\frac{f(n+1)}{2}=\left( \frac{f(n)}{2}\right) ^2 +\frac{1}{4}.$$
So anything like closed forms etc. should be extractable from the OEIS page, if it's there.
Side note: The Mandlebrot set intersects the real axis in the interval $[-2,1/4]$. Since it consists of those points $c$ such that the orbit of $0$ under the iteration of $f(x)=x^2+c$ is bounded, we see that your sequence is precisely the (bounded) orbit of the rightmost real point of the Mandlebrot set. (In this sense it seems not surprising there isn't a closed form, as typically Mandlebrot iterations bounce around the set unpredictably. There are periodic points, but it seems $1/4$ is not one of them. (Just thought this connection might be of interest.)