TITLE: Is it possible that $(ab)^{-1}$ is defined although $a^{-1},b^{-1}$ are not?
QUESTION [10 upvotes]: I wish to enquire about the properties of units in abstract algebra. 
In a ring $R$, a unit $u$ is an invertible element. Let $u=ab$. Is it possible that $a$ and $b$ are not units? Is it possible that they're prime?
Motivation: If $u=ab$, then $(ab)^{-1}$ exists. We know that if the inverses of $a$ and $b$ exist, then $(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}$. However, if the inverses of $a$ and $b$ don't exist, I feel $ab$ can still be a unit. However, I'm not sure of this. 
Thanks in advance!

REPLY [4 votes]: If $ab$ is invertible, then there is an $x\in R$ with $x\cdot ab = ab\cdot x = 1$.
From $(xa)b = 1$ we get that $b$ is left-invertible, and from $a(bx) = 1$ we get that $a$ is right-invertible.
The example in the answer of martini shows that a left-invertible element is not necessarily right-invertible.
Rings with the property "left-invertible iff right-invertible" are called Dedekind finite.
So in Dedekind finite rings, your property is true.
Special cases of Dedekind finite rings are commutative rings (answer of Anupam) and finite rings.