TITLE: diophantine equation $ |x^2-py^2|=\frac{p-1}{2} $
QUESTION [8 upvotes]: Prime $p\equiv3\pmod4$, then  diophantine equation
$$ |x^2-py^2|=\frac{p-1}{2} $$
has a  solution  in integers
en, $x^2-py^2=-1$ has no solution  in integers. I'd be grateful for any help you are able to provide
Thanks a lot!

REPLY [15 votes]: This can be proved as follows:
i) $p-1$ can be written as $|a^2 - pb^2|$ for some integers $a,b$.
ii) $2$ can be written as $|a^2 - pb^2|$ for some integers $a,b$.
iii) The set of integers of the form $|a^2 - pb^2|$ is closed
under multiplication.  Hence by combining (i) and (ii) we find that
$2(p-1)$ can be written as $|a^2 - pb^2|$ for some integers $a,b$.
iv) In (iii) the integers $a,b$ must be even.  Hence we can write
$a=2x$, $b=2y$ for some integers $x,y$, and then
$|x^2-py^2| = 2(p-1)/4 = (p-1)/2$ as desired.
Step (i) is clear by inspection: let $a=b=1$.  The proof of (ii)
is given below; it is a known (though possibly not well-known)
consequence of the theory of the "Pell equation".  Step (iii)
uses 
Brahmagupta's identity
$$
(a^2-pb^2) (c^2-pd^2) = (ac+p\,bd)^2 - p(ad+bc)^2,
$$
which we now understand as multiplicativity of the norm
$\| a + b \sqrt{p} \| = a^2 - pb^2$ [note that $ac+p\,bd$ and $ad+bc$
are the coefficients of $1$ and $\sqrt p$ in $(a+b\sqrt{p})(c+d\sqrt{p})$].
Step (iv) is a consequence of the familiar fact that even and odd squares
are always congruent to $0$ and $1 \bmod 4$ respectively:
$2(p-1)$ is a multiple of $4$, and since $p \equiv 3 \bmod 4$
the congruence $a^2 - pb^2 \equiv 0 \bmod 4$ forces
$a \equiv b \equiv 0 \bmod 2$.
It remains to prove (ii).  Let $(m,n)$ be a fundamental solution of
$|m^2 - pn^2| = 1$.  It's already been observed in the notes that
reduction mod 4 proves that $m^2 - pn^2 = -1$ is not possible
(one could also get this by reduction mod $p$, because $p \equiv 3 \bmod 4$
implies that the Legendre symbol $(-1/p)$ is $-1$).  Therefore
$m^2 - pn^2 = +1$ and
$$
pn^2 = m^2 - 1 = (m-1) (m+1).
$$
I claim that $m$ is even.
Indeed if $m$ were odd then $n$ would be even and we could write
$$
p(n/2)^2 = \frac{m-1}{2} \, \frac{m+1}{2}.
$$
But then $(m-1)/2$ and $(m+1)/2$ would be consecutive integers
whose product is $p$ times a square.  Thus one of them would be a square,
and the other would be $p$ times a square, giving a solution of
$|a^2-pb^2| = 1$ smaller than $m^2-pn^2 = 1$;
and this is impossible because $(m,n)$ was assumed fundamental.
Since $m$ is even, $m-1$ and $m+1$ are relatively prime
(they differ by $2$ and are odd).  Their product is $p$ times a square,
so one of them is a square and the other is $p$ times a square.
This gives a solution of $|x^2 - py^2| = 2$, QED.