TITLE: Why can't elliptic curves be parameterized with rational functions?
QUESTION [25 upvotes]: Background: For our abstract algebra class, we were asked to prove that $\mathbb{Q}(t, \sqrt{t^3 - t})$ is not purely transcendental. It clearly has transcendence degree $1$, so if it is purely transcendental, there is a transcendental $u$ and rational functions $f$ and $g$ such that $f(u) = t$ and $g(u) = \sqrt{t^3 - t}$. Therefore, $f(u)^3 - f(u) = g(u)^2$. But since $u$ is transcendental, $f(x)^3 - f(x) = g(x)^2$ as polynomials. This would be a rational parameterization of the elliptic curve $y^2 = x^3 - x$.
Since I'm not very familiar with elliptic curves, I couldn't show directly that such a parameterization cannot exist. So I  showed that it would give rise to an integer solution to $pq(p + q)(p - q) = r^2$. The pathway to get there is really neat, but long, so unless someone asks, I'll omit it. Using a vaguely geometric argument from Fermat, I showed there are no integer solutions.
But this was a very 1) lengthy 2) tricky-to-motivate 3) bizarre proof, and it would have been much easier if I could have proved that elliptic curves do not admit a rational parameterization. Internet searches have mentioned all sorts of things about the topology of the curve, and parameterizations in the Weierstrass $\wp$ function, but they seemed to take the fact for granted, because I never saw a proof.
Could anyone show me a proof for this statement? Also, $y^2 = x^3 + 0x + 0$ does have a rational parameterization; is this some kind of degenerate case that can be kicked out?

REPLY [4 votes]: Assume an elliptic curve $E$ has a rational parametrization by a holomorphic map 
$$f: \mathbb P^1 \longrightarrow E.$$
The formula of Riemann-Hurwitz implies
$$g(\mathbb P^1) = b/2 + (deg \ f)(g(E) -1) + 1$$
with genus $g(\mathbb P^1) = 0$, $g(E) = 1$ and $b \ge 0$ the total branching order of $f$, a contradiction, q.e.d