TITLE: Proving $\frac2\pi x \le \sin x \le x$ for $x\in [0,\frac {\pi} 2]$
QUESTION [6 upvotes]: Prove $\frac2\pi x \le \sin x \le x$ for $x\in [0,\frac {\pi} 2]$.

I tried to do this in two ways, I'm not sure about CMVT and I have a problem with the other way.

Using Cauchy's MVT:
RHS: 
$\sin x \le x \implies \frac {\sin x}{x}\le 1$ 
So define: 
$f(x)=\sin x, \ g(x)=x$ then from CMVT: 
$\dfrac {f(\frac {\pi} 2)}{g(\frac {\pi} 2)}=\dfrac {f'(c)} {g'(c)}=\cos c$ 
and from the fact that $c$ is between $0$ and $\pi/2 \implies \cos c \le 1$.
LHS: In the same manner but here I run into some trouble:
$\frac2\pi x \le \sin x\implies \frac {2x}{\pi\sin x}\le 1$
So: 
$\dfrac {f(\frac {\pi} 2)}{g(\frac {\pi} 2)}=\dfrac {f'(c)} {g'(c)}\implies\frac {1}{\sin {\frac {\pi}{2}}}=\frac {2}{\pi \cos c}$
 Here actually 
$\frac {1}{\sin {\frac {\pi}{2}}}=1$ so it's also $\le 1$
Is it correct to use CMVT like this ?

The other way: 
We want to show: $f(x)=\sin x - x < 0$ and $g(x)=\frac {2x}{\pi}-sinx <0 $ by deriving both it's easy to show that the inequality stands for $f$ but for $g$ it isn't so obvious that $g'(x)=\frac {2}{\pi}-\cos x$ is negative. In fact for $x=\frac {\pi} 2$ it's positive. Please help figure this out.

This is the same The sine inequality $\frac2\pi x \le \sin x \le x$ for $0<x<\frac\pi2$ but all the answers there are partial or hints and I want to avoid convexity.
Note: I can't use integrals.

REPLY [2 votes]: The inequality $\sin x \leq x$ for $x \in [0, \pi/2]$ has many proofs (one of them being geometrical and is used in proof of $\lim_{x \to 0}(\sin x)/x = 1$). Another approach is to show that that $f(x) = x - \sin x$ is increasing in $[0, \pi/2]$ because its derivative $f'(x) = 1 - \cos x \geq 0$. And then we have $f(x) \geq f(0) = 0$ for $x \in [0, \pi/2]$ and we are done. But this is based on derivative of $\sin x$ which is based on $\lim_{x \to 0}(\sin x)/x = 1$ so that the geometrical proof referred above is the more fundamental one.
For the other inequality we need to show that $\dfrac{\sin x}{x} \geq \dfrac{2}{\pi} = \dfrac{\sin (\pi/2)}{\pi/2}$. It thus follows that we need to show that $g(x) = (\sin x)/x, g(0) = 1$ is decreasing in $[0, \pi/2]$. This is easy again because $g'(x) = \dfrac{x\cos x - \sin x}{x^{2}} \leq 0$ if $x \leq \tan x$. Again the proof of $x \leq \tan x$ is geometrical (used in proof of proof of $\lim_{x \to 0}(\sin x)/x = 1$).
The geometrical proof is available at MSE as well as many other places online (including my post).