TITLE: Is it actually incorrect to say $x/1 = x$?
QUESTION [15 upvotes]: The rational numbers $\mathbb{Q}$ are defined as the field of quotients of $\mathbb{Z}$ under the relation $(a, b) \sim (c , d) \iff$ $ad = bc$.  There is an obvious isomorphism between the subring $\{[(a, 1)] : a \in \mathbb{Z}$} and $\mathbb{Z}$ .   So technically we only pair every integer $a$ with $[(a, 1)]$.  They're not equal though.  Am I just making a big deal out of nothing?

REPLY [7 votes]: I would like to mention a point that contributes slightly to Hagen's beautiful answer.
There are many instances where an equivalence class is not denoted as such. For example, elements of the Hilbert space $ \mathcal{H} := {L^{2}}(X,\Sigma,\mu) $ are equivalence classes of square-integrable functions, where two functions are said to be equivalent if and only if they differ on a $ \mu $-null subset of $ X $. However, one rarely denotes an element of $ \mathcal{H} $ by $ [f]_{\sim} $. Indeed, one simply picks a function $ f $ that represents a given equivalence class and pretends that it is the class itself.
For your problem, the choice of $ x $ as a representative of $ [(x,1)] $ is canonical, so although the two objects are not exactly equal from the set-theoretic point of view, the usage of such a shorthand should not cause much confusion. In fact, we have been doing arithmetic this way since elementary school without much trouble! :)