TITLE: Dual space of $H^1(\Omega)$
QUESTION [9 upvotes]: I'm a bit confused, why do people not define $H^1(\Omega)^*$? Instead they only say that $H^{-1}(\Omega)$ is the dual of $H^1_0(\Omega).$ 
$H^1(\Omega)$ is a Hilbert space so it has a well-defined dual space. Can someone explain the issue with this?

REPLY [11 votes]: I don't quite agree with Dirk. The dual of $H^1$ sure is well-defined, it is just that it is hard to be characterized like $(H^1_0)^* = H^{-1}$, which is people usually say. 
The isomorphism between $H^1_0$ and $H^{-1}$ can interpreted in boundary value problem sense: The Dirichlet Laplacian can be defined as
$$
-\Delta^{\mathrm{Dir}}: H^1_0(\Omega)\to H^{-1}(\Omega)
$$
in the sense that
$$
\langle-\Delta^{\mathrm{Dir}} u,v  \rangle = \int_{\Omega} \nabla u\cdot \nabla v, \quad \text{for } \forall u,v\in H^1_0(\Omega),
$$
which is to say, by Riesz's representation, that $$\forall f\in H^{-1}(\Omega), \quad f = -\Delta^{\mathrm{Dir}} u \quad\text{for some } \; u\in H^1_0(\Omega).\tag{1}$$
Mimicking above, we can define Neumann Laplacian:
$$-\Delta^{\mathrm{Neu}}: H^1(\Omega) \to H^1(\Omega)^*,$$
in the sense that
$$
\langle-\Delta^{\mathrm{Neu}} u,v  \rangle = \int_{\Omega} \nabla u\cdot \nabla v, \quad \text{for } \forall u,v\in H^1 (\Omega),
$$
by the compatibility condition of a Neumann boundary value problem, the Neumann Laplacian $-\Delta^{\mathrm{Neu}}$ is rather a bijection from $H^1(\Omega)/\mathbb{R} \to (H^1(\Omega)/\mathbb{R})^*$.
Only if we use the full $H^1$-inner product to define an operator that maps an $H^1$-function to its dual:
$$
\langle\mathcal{A} u,v  \rangle = \int_{\Omega} (\nabla u\cdot \nabla v+u\,v),\quad \text{for } \forall u,v\in H^1(\Omega),
$$
where $\mathcal{A}: H^1(\Omega) \to H^1(\Omega)^*$. However we don't have a (1) kind like statement because the unspecified boundary value.