TITLE: Example: a pair of nonisomorphic parallel morphisms with isomorphic cones
QUESTION [7 upvotes]: First of all, let me fix some notation. 

Let $\mathcal D$ be a triangulated category in the sense of Verdier-Grothendieck (for example, the homotopy category $\mathbf{K}(k)$ of cochain complexes over a fixed commutative ring $k$). I call cone of a morphism $f : A \rightarrow B$ the object $C(f)$ (uniquely determined up to isomorphism) such that $A \stackrel{f}\rightarrow B \rightarrow C(f) \rightarrow A[1]$
is a distinguished triangle in $\mathcal D$. When $\mathcal D = \mathbf{K}(k)$, $C(f)$ can be identified (up to homotopy equivalence) to the mapping cone of the chain map $f$.
In any category $\mathcal C$, I say that two morphisms $f: A \to B$ and $f' : A' \to B'$ are isomorphic, if they are isomorphic in the category of morphisms $\mathrm{Mor}(\mathcal C)$, that is, there are two isomorphisms $u : A \to A'$ and $v : B \to B'$ such that $vf = f'u$.

Now, my question is the following: is there a triangulated category with a pair of parallel morphisms $f,f' : A \to B$ such that $f$ is not isomorphic to $f'$ but $C(f)$ is isomorphic to $C(f')$? I believe that an example could be found in the category $\mathbf{K}(k)$.
Of course, if we don't require $f$ and $f'$ to be parallel, then we may find examples in any reasonable triangulated category: just set $f=1_0$, the identity of a zero object, and $f' = 1_A$, the identity of a nonzero object. Then, both cones are zero objects (a general fact in triangulated categories), but clearly $f$ is not isomorphic to $f'$.

REPLY [4 votes]: Yet another example. Take $R$ any ring such that $R\cong R\oplus R$. Consider the following parallel morphisms $f,g\colon R\rightarrow R$: $f=0$ the trivial morphism, and
$$g=\left(\begin{smallmatrix}
1&0\\\0&0
\end{smallmatrix}\right)\colon R\cong R\oplus R\longrightarrow  R\oplus R\cong R.$$
Both have isomorphic mapping cone
$$C\colon \cdots\rightarrow0\rightarrow R\stackrel{0}\rightarrow R\rightarrow0\rightarrow\cdots$$
but $f\ncong g$ since $f=0\neq g$.