TITLE: Vanishing of Dolbeault cohomologies and Steinness
QUESTION [17 upvotes]: That Stein manifolds have all $(p,q), p \geq 0, q \geq 1$  vanishing Dolbeault cohomology groups is more or less standard. I am a little bit confused about the reverse implication: whether the vanishing of all Dolbeault cohomologies ($p \geq 0, q \geq 1$) implies Steinness? I could not find a reference, yet I noticed the following:
In the recent (and quite authoritative) book by Forstnerič ''Stein Manifolds and Holomorphic Mappings'' Theorem 2.4.6 says:

On any Stein manifold $X$ the Dolbeault cohomology groups vanish: $H^{p,q}_{\bar\partial}(X) = 0$ for all $p \geq 0, q \geq 1$.

So the reverse is not even mentioned.
In the older book by Grauert and Remmert ''Theory of Stein spaces'' on page 81 one reads:

The assumptions of Theorem 5 are always satisfied by Stein manifolds. It is not known if there exist non-Stein manifolds of this type (i.e. $H^q(X,\Omega^p)=0, p \geq 0, q \geq 1$)

So I assume this was open at least as of 2004 (?)
On the other hand a recent paper by Chakrabarti and Shaw entitled ''The
$L^2$-cohomology of a bounded smooth Stein domain is not necessarily Hausdorff'' (on arXiv, the author's website says that it is to appear in Math. Ann.) begins with:

For each bidegree $(p,q)$, with $p\geq0,q >0$, the Dolbeault Cohomology group $H^{(p,q)}(\Omega)$ of a Stein manifold $\Omega$ in degree $(p,q)$ vanishes, and indeed this property characterizes Stein manifolds among complex manifolds.

The provide references for that fact are the books of Hörmander and Gunning-Rossi (where I couldn't find it).

REPLY [7 votes]: Sorry for the misleading remark in the paper. Indeed we were thinking about domains in Stein manifolds, and were careless in making the side remark, which of course has nothing to do with the main topic of the paper. Thanks for pointing out!