TITLE: Can non-homeomorphic spaces have homeomorphic squares?
QUESTION [30 upvotes]: I an wondering if there are non-homeomorphic spaces $X$ and $Y$ such that $X^2$ is homeomorphic to $Y^2$.

REPLY [45 votes]: Here is an extract from MR0562824 (81d:54005), Trnková, V. Homeomorphisms of products of spaces. (Russian) Uspekhi Mat. Nauk 34 (1979), no. 6(210), 124–138:
S. Ulam raised the following question in 1933: Is there a space $X$ which has nonhomeomorphic square roots, i.e., $X\cong A\times A\cong B\times B$ for some nonhomeomorphic $A,B$? This problem was solved by R. H. Fox in 1947: he constructed two nonhomeomorphic four-dimensional manifolds $A$ and $B$ such that $A\times A\cong B\times B$.
upd: The reference is Fox, R. H. On a problem of S. Ulam concerning Cartesian products. Fund. Math. 34, (1947). 278–287.
The answer to Ulam's question for 3-manifolds is positive as well, see Glimm, James
Two Cartesian products which are Euclidean spaces. Bull. Soc. Math. France 88 1960 131–135. 
The answer for 2-polyhedra is negative, see W. Rosicki, "On a problem of S. Ulam concerning Cartesian squares of 2-dimensional polyhedra.", Fund. Math. 127 (1987), no. 2, 101–125. This paper also gives the following elementary example:
Take $A$ to be the disjoint union of the Hilbert cube and $\mathbb{N}$ and $B$ to be the disjoint union of two copies of the HIlbert cube and $\mathbb{N}$. Then both $A^2$ and $B^2$ are homeomorphic to the disjoint union of a countable family of Hilbert cubes and $\mathbb{N}$.
Finally, in this example one can replace the Hilbert cube by any space homeomorphic to its square and not homeomorphic to two copies of itself, e.g., by $\left\{1/n\mid n\in\mathbb{Z}_{>0} \right\}\cup\{0\}$.

REPLY [24 votes]: Yes.  Let $M$ be the Whitehead Manifold, which has the property that $M \not\cong \mathbb{R}^3$, but $M\times\mathbb{R}^3 \cong \mathbb{R}^6$.  (In fact $M\times\mathbb{R} \cong \mathbb{R}^4$.) Let
$$
X \;=\; \mathbb{R}^3 \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: \cdots
$$
and
$$
Y \;=\; \mathbb{R}^3 \:\uplus\: \mathbb{R}^3 \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: M \:\uplus\: \cdots\text{,}
$$
where $\uplus$ denotes the disjoint union of topological spaces.  Then $X$ and $Y$ are not homeomorphic, but
$$
X^2 \;\cong\; Y^2 \;\cong\; (\mathbb{R}^6 \:\uplus\: \mathbb{R}^6 \:\uplus\: \cdots) \:\uplus\: (M^2 \:\uplus\: M^2 \:\uplus\: \cdots).
$$